My essay involves two aspects: (1) The full acknowledgement that mathematics is the only means to accurately describe the physical aspects of the quantum world. (2) A critique of Pythagorean physics… Many would say that a defence of Pythagorean physics should follow from (1) above, not a critique. Yet this doesn’t need to be the case, as hopefully will be shown.

In quantum mechanics, it is the case that everything ‘said’ about particles, forces, fields, etc. is said with mathematics. Indeed, what else could be used to describe these micro-entities and extremely intangible phenomena? Apart from metaphors such as “fields”, “particles”, “waves”, etc., there’s simply nothing else that can be used to do the job. Yet surely that doesn’t mean that there’s no territory to map…
Or that we must become Pythagoreans.
Again, other than metaphors, what language or set of descriptions could be used other than mathematics? It isn’t that there’s nothing else there. It’s that only maths is available to do the job. Some readers may see, then, why Pythagoreanism is so attractive to various mathematical physicists and philosophers.
Metaphors and Analogies in Quantum Mechanics
There are other ways to describe the quantum world other than with maths. We can use metaphors. Such metaphors are — or should be — entirely dependent on the prior maths. That’s the case even if sometimes metaphors come before the maths, or are over and above the maths.
Still, just because there are other ways to understand the quantum world, that doesn’t mean that they truly reflect it.
Maths provides descriptions, but does it provide understanding?
In terms of metaphors again. Metaphors are said to be required to make a connection between the mathematical formalism and what experimental physicists experience. Indeed, could anyone truly make sense of the formalism without metaphors and analogies? [See later section on mystical Pythagoreans.] How would we know what it’s all about?
So are the metaphors and analogies purely stand-ins for the maths? The layperson and even physicist may well need them — but so what! Isn’t this just a consequence of the limitations of the human mind — even the physicist’s mind? If reality is mathematical, yet we must rely on metaphors and analogies, then reality still remains mathematical.
What about the case against such Pythagoreanism?
It can be argued that the maths in mathematical physics only gives you the structure of the world. Yet that world still needs to be interpreted in order to be understood. This is where metaphors, analogies and models come in. It’s of course possible that the interpretations are always wrong — at least to some degree.
What’s more, the maths in quantum mechanics doesn’t interpret itself.
Even a pure or “mystical” Pythagorean can agree that metaphors are indispensable, or that, more broadly, interpretation is unavoidable. He may, or will, do so because he believes that human minds are limited; therefore we require such interpretations. In that case, then, metaphors, etc. are simply aids to human understanding. They have no ontological status or significance. A Pythagorean may even state that they don’t reveal anything about reality at all…
Surely, that can’t be right.
If all the above were the case, then metaphors, analogies, etc. would be literally pointless.
We can also turn the Pythagorean claim on its head by saying that we shouldn’t read any ontology into the maths. That’s mainly because maths is seen by many physicists to be just a tool for prediction.
All this raises two questions: (1) What are the metaphors actually metaphors of? (2) What, exactly, is being interpreted?
In the Pythagorean case, the metaphors are metaphors of mathematical reality. And it’s that mathematical reality that’s being interpreted. Yet surely this must mean that the description and the thing described are the same thing, or at least both are mathematical.
The Swedish-American physicist, machine learning researcher and author Max Tegmark can be brought in here.
Tegmark believes that if a mathematical structure is identical (or “equivalent”) to the physical structure it “models”, then they’re one and the same thing. Thus, it makes little sense to say that x “models” — or is “isomorphic” with — y because x and y are one and the same thing.
Tegmark gives an explicit example:
electric-field strength = a mathematical structure
In Tegmark’s own words:
“‘ [If] [t]his electricity-field strength here in physical space corresponds to this number in the mathematical structure for example, then our external physical reality meets the definition of being a mathematical structure — indeed, that same mathematical structure.”
If x (a mathematical structure) and y (a physical structure) are one and the same thing, then one needs to know how they can have any kind of relation to one another at all.
Pythagorean Physics: Maths Describes Maths?
At first, a layperson may see a problem with Pythagorean physics because a mathematical description D is describing mathematical reality R, and thus creating an identity. Yet, in basic terms, D doesn’t need to be identical to R. However, this is still maths about maths.
Because mathematics (or at least numbers) can be applied to anything, it can even be applied to itself, as with Gödel’s incompleteness theorems in which Gödel assigned numbers to every element of a formal system. So maths describing maths isn’t surprising or problematic in itself.
If I were in a Pythagorean frame of mind, when walking about my room I could “see” various mathematical relations, symmetries and ratios. For example, the relation of my computer to the window, the accidental symmetry between tables and desk. Etc. All this would involve angles, distances, parallelism, etc., all described in mathematical terms. I can go deeper here and discuss light reflections, the timings of typings, volumes, trajectories of movement, etc. in mathematical terms.
Similarly, if I were to randomly throw an entire pack of cards on the floor, then that mess-of-cards could still be given a mathematical description. The disordered parts of that mess would be just as amenable to mathematical description as its (accidental) symmetries.
But why bother? What can I conclude from all this?

It was just said that maths can be used to explain almost anything and almost everything. The cognitive psychologist and idealist Donald Hoffman, for example, proves this point when he uses maths to describe qualia! He sums up his approach by saying that his position
“give[s] a mathematically precise theory of conscious experiences, conscious agents, and their dynamics, and then makes empirically testable predictions”.
Yet if we follow on from what’s already been said, that mathematicisation of qualia and consciousness shouldn’t be a surprise.
Mystical Pythagoreans?
The term “mystical” is used in the following simply because that’s the term that’s been used about the ancient Pythagoreans, and even about later ones too.
Still, why use the word “mystical” at all?
When people use the word “mystical” about the ancient Pythagoreans they usually do so because they claimed to have a direct — and even privileged — access to reality as it truly is.
The true Pythagorean only thinks in terms of the maths. He may even “visualise” in purely mathematical terms. So, sure, this position is deemed to be extreme only because the mystical Pythagorean believes that he can dispense with metaphors and analogies.
It may now seem that the contemporary Pythagorean physicist is actually going all the way back to the mysticism of the ancient Pythagoreans. In other words, if we take a contemporary Pythagorean at his word, then all there is to reality is mathematical structure. Thus, isn’t it possible that there are human persons who can know or grasp reality directly without the crutches of metaphors, models, analogies, etc? So do some human Pythagoreans immediately grasp the mathematical structure and, therefore, reality?
Take the mathematical physicist Roger Penrose.
Roger Penrose as a Pythagorean
Penrose has often been classed as a “Platonist”, less so a “Pythagorean”. (Penrose can be classed as a “Platonist” toward maths itself, and a “Pythagorean” when it comes to the applications of maths to physical reality.) Take the following passage:
“[T]he entire physical world is depicted as being governed according to mathematical laws. [ ] everything in the physical universe is indeed governed in completely precise detail by mathematical principles.”
There is a forced way that the passage above can be interpreted as not actually endorsing Pythagoreanism. Perhaps the words “governed according to” can be stressed to do so. In addition, there’s no statement of identity here. Still, the passage is worth noting for its Pythagorean “flavour”.
What about this passage? -
“[A]long comes quantum mechanics, and this quantum mechanics turns out to be fundamentally based on these complex numbers. [ ] they’re very much essentially part of the fabric. The fabric couldn’t exist without them”.
This is even more strongly Pythagorean in flavour. Yet there’s still no explicit statement of identity.
More relevantly, and in terms of the metaphors and analogies used in quantum mechanics, Penrose once stated the following:
“[I] find words almost useless for mathematical thinking. Other kinds of thinking, perhaps such as philosophizing, seem to be much better suited to verbal expression. Perhaps this is why so many philosophers seem to be of the opinion that language is essential for intelligent or conscious thought!”
To be fair, Penrose is talking about mathematics itself here, not mathematical descriptions of the physical world. Despite that, it would seem possible that this attitude could pass over to mathematical descriptions of the world too. In other words, Penrose may even find words, metaphors, analogies, etc. personally useless when it comes to describing physical reality.

