We can now ask if quantum nature affects macro-reality (or, at the least, the "Kantian world" as it's perceived and/or experienced). Perhaps, if dialetheic logic (DL) is truly dependent on the findings of quantum mechanics, we can also ask if dialetheism is applicable to the “classical world” at all. Of course I may be barking up the wrong tree here. That is, why assume the relevance of this macro-/micro-world opposition to dialetheic logic?2
Does inconsistency necessarily have a connection with dialetheism?
And, if so, what's the connection in particular instances? What Priest continues to say may mean that not only is this statement unconnected to dialetheism; it may not be connected to QM either. He continues:
“micro-realm is so different from the macro-realm that there is no reason to suppose that what holds of the second will hold of the first” (658).
True. Though, again, is dialetheism independent of QM? And, in parallel, is it applicable outside that “micro-world”? Perhaps Priest would reply:
What does it mean to ask if DL is applicable to the macro-world?
Indeed need logic be applicable to the/a world at all?