Saturday, 20 December 2025

Get Your Concepts and Definitions Right!

 


To the American philosopher Theodore Sider, a concept or definition is correct if it captures reality. (That position may seem obvious and true… at first.) Thus, if a (in this case) definition doesn’t match reality, then he believes that “[w]e should instead reject the proposed definition”. Sider goes further and says that “[t]hose who accept that definition are in a sense conceptually confused”. The concepts which Sider tackles in the following essay include [man] and [free will]. Later, David Chalmers tackles [conscious experience].

A Boy’s Incorrect Definition of ‘Man’

Take Theodore Sider’s stance on “the concept of a man”. According to Sider,

“This boy thinks it is part of the definition of the word ‘man’ that men never cry.”

We can immediately ask if a young son would ever think about the definition of the word “man” at all. Similarly, would he ever think that part of the singular definition of “man” would include “men never cry”. The boy may have some kind of view about what makes a man a man without ever relying on definitions or even kind kind of strict criteria. Of course, Sider could argue that the definitions and concepts this boy has are tacit. [See tacit knowledge.] Yet even if tacit, Sider may still not be right here.

In any case, the story Sider concerns himself with is that this young boy has two beliefs about his dad: (1) “[H]is belief that his father is a man.” (2) “[H]is belief that his father is crying.” On the surface, there’s no conflict here. However, in the case of this boy, Sider says that there is because the son is supposed to believe that a man never cries too.

Sider concludes that the boy “should clear up his conceptual confusion about the nature of manhood”. Now, since Sider is concerned with the adherence of concepts to reality, is he saying that it is part of the nature of manhood that men do cry? Some men do cry. Some men don’t cry. Yet does it automatically follow that this boy is conceptually confused?…

Not really.

Concepts are partially normative. Thus, concepts aren’t completely determined by reality. After all, it surely can’t be the case that all the people who adhere to the boy’s — supposed — concept [man] have never seen a man cry. Similarly, is the concept [justice] or [sexy] completely determined by reality? Thus, the concept [man] may not be completely determined by reality either.

More broadly, Sider himself is being normative here. However, not in the same respect. Rather than admitting the normative nature of the concept, say, [justice] or [man], Sider takes a normative attitude toward the use of concepts. He believes that their job is to match reality.

Sider’s Correct Concept of Free Will?

Sider is pretty categorical about concepts being either correct or incorrect. For example, he says that, in some cases, “we misunderstand the concept of freedom”. In detail:

“If ‘free’ meant ‘uncaused’, then the conflict would be real. But that’s not what ‘free’ means.”

That’s not what ‘free’ means!

That statement is very categorical. Sider believes that there is one, and only one, correct definition of the word “free”. Even within this limited debate on free will, surely that can’t be right.

In terms of the debate on determinism.

It “seems to conflict with freedom only because we misunderstand the concept of freedom”. Thus, there’s always a correct concept waiting for us in the ether. If we discover it, then we have the correct concept. And in Sider’s metaphysically-realist picture, it’s correct because it matches reality.

This raises an obvious question. How does Sider, or anyone else, know that the former definition is false, or that it doesn’t capture reality? Now there are two further questions: 1) How does Sider know that his own metaphysical account is correct? 2) Even if Sider’s metaphysical account is correct, are concepts and definitions exclusively about matching reality?

Sider can’t argue that concepts simply describe the world — perhaps he doesn’t — because his entire metaphysics contains a strong normative dimension. Thus, even Sider’s (possibly) correct concepts and definitions tell us how we ought to reason and classify.

We can say that Sider’s position aligns with the “classical analytic view” of concepts. In that view, Sider believes that correct concepts are definable in terms of necessary and sufficient conditions. Yet those conditions can still be taken to include criteria. Following on from that, they must have (or contain) normative force. [See note 1.]

Sider on Concepts

It’s not only that Sider believes that concepts are of vital importance in philosophy. It’s rather his take on concepts themselves. After all, he states that philosophy “investigates the essences of concepts”.

A good way of tackling Sider’s take on concepts is to investigate his strong position against what he sees as conventionalism. According to Sider, conventionalists believe that “these investigations ultimately concern definitions”. Not only that, according to the conventionalist, “[i]t seems to follow that one could settle any philosophical dispute just by consulting a dictionary!”.

Clearly, Sider doesn’t believe that metaphysical investigations ultimately concern definitions. Instead, reality should determine our definitions. Thus, investigations ultimately concern reality.

Sider also gets to the heart of the matter (at least in the debate between metaphysical realism and what he calls “deflationism”) when he states the following:

“Everyone faces the question of what is ‘real’ and what is the mere projection of our conceptual apparatus, of which issues are substantive and which are ‘mere bookkeeping’.”

Since the 1960s, and probably before, what is ‘real’ has indeed been deemed to be a projection of our conceptual apparatus by many philosophers. Sider is reacting against that tradition.

Sider on Conceptual Analysis

Sider is against any overstress on what came to be called conceptual analysis. Indeed, according to Sider:

“Today’s ontologists are not conceptual analysts; few attend to ordinary usage of sentences like ‘chairs exist’.”

Sider also comments on what he calls “ontological deflationism”. He writes:

“These critics — ‘ontological deflationists’, I’ll call them — have said instead something more like what the positivists said about nearly all of philosophy: that there is something wrong with ontological questions themselves. Other than questions of conceptual analysis, there are no sensible questions of (philosophical) ontology. Certainly there are no questions that are fit to debate in the manner of the ontologists.”

In terms of conceptual analysis and ontological deflationism being relevant to the composition and constitution of objects, Sider writes:

“[W]hen some particles are arranged tablewise, there is no ‘substantive’ question of whether there also exists a table composed of those particles, they say. There are simply different — and equally good — ways to talk.”

Obviously, Sider isn’t arguing that we should dispense with concepts. (How could he?) Instead, he’s arguing that concepts (or “ways to talk”) aren’t the entire picture. (This will seem obvious to laypersons.) More importantly, Sider believes that reality should determine our concepts.

Sider Against Stipulative Definitions?

In a sense, the only different between a stipulative definition and an ordinary definition is that the former says, “Let X mean Y”. The word “let” gives the game away here. The stipulator is being upfront about the normative nature of his definition. He’s telling us how we should use the term X. Yet the use of everyday definitions contain normative rules too — ones which aren’t explicitly stated.

In this case, then, the stipulative definition of X isn’t just reflecting a norm — it’s imposing it. (One may wonder, however, if anything can be classed as a norm if it’s just about a single stipulator saying, “Let X mean Y.”)

The following is an even more obvious stipulative definition:

For the purposes of this fight, define ‘atom’ as the word we must use to end the fight.

To recap. Let’s be explicit about the implicit normativity in Sider’s metaphysical analyses of concepts. Sider is implicitly stating the following:

This is how you ought to use the term ‘free will’.

Sider is being normative because he’s criticising — or even excluding — the misuses of certain concepts.

Let’s now side-track a little.

David Chalmers on Stipulation

The Australian philosopher David Chalmers often mentions what he calls “stipulation”. The basic point is that if we stipulate what we mean by a particular word, then the answers to any questions about facts, data, what x is, etc. must — at least partly — follow from such stipulations. Of course, some people will be horrified by the argument that acts of stipulation are decisive when it comes to what we take to be matters of fact

But it’s not that simple.

There is a problem with over-stressing the importance of stipulation, or even with simply emphasising the importance of stipulation at all. Chalmers sums up this problem with a joke. He writes:

“One might as well define ‘world peace’ as ‘a ham sandwich.’ Achieving world peace becomes much easier, but it is a hollow achievement.”

As it is, Chalmers only applies his joke to a single case: consciousness. So perhaps it can be applied to other cases (such as free will, man, etc.) too. Clearly, even someone who argues that stipulation is important won’t also accept that we can define the words “world peace” as “a ham sandwich”. In turn, some philosophers and laypersons will feel just as strongly about claiming that a, say, “computer virus is alive” or that “bacteria learn”.

Here’s another question from Chalmers:

“Does a mouse have beliefs?”

If we stipulate what we mean by the word “belief”, then the answer to that question must — at least in part — follow from the stipulation.

To simplify, if x, y and z constitute what it is for something to be a belief, then if a mouse displays x, y and z, then it has a belief. Of course, this is a simplified story. That’s because agreement will have to be made on x, y and z, and then on whether not x, y and z are necessary and sufficient for belief. But however complicated this story turns out, stipulation will still remain part of it.

Chalmers is keen to accept the importance of stipulation when it comes to such decisions. He believes — at least as I see it — that much that passes for metaphysics is merely verbal dispute too. However, it’s still the case that in some examples (or in one example!) at least there’s a fact of the matter which makes some statements, concepts or theories just plain wrong.

Take Chalmers’ own final question:

“Does a mouse have conscious experience?”

In this case, it isn’t all about stipulation or verbal dispute. That is:

“Either there is something that it is like to be a mouse or there is not, and it is not up to us to define the mouse’s experience into or out of existence.”

So it’s not always a case of all the debaters agreeing on the facts, data, evidence, etc. though still disagreeing on what they say about them. This time — at least according to Chalmers — the debaters are also disagreeing about the facts. In this example, it’s about whether or not “a mouse [actually has] conscious experience”. Chalmers believes that “we cannot stipulate [] away” whether or not the mouse has conscious experience or not.

Conclusion

Sider states the following:

“If conventionalism is true, philosophy turns into nothing more than an inquiry into the definitions we humans give to words. [ ] Conventionalists are typically up front about this: they want to reduce the significance of philosophy.”

That is strong stuff! But, again, Sider isn’t against definitions. (How could he be?) Instead, he believes that definitions must adhere to reality.

Is conventionalism really that extreme? (At first blast, Sider’s passage above sounds more like a description of 1930s and 1940s logical positivism!)

Do conventionalists (if they exist at all) really argue that philosophy is “nothing more than any inquiry into the definitions we humans give to words”? Or do conventionalists simply stress the importance of our words and our conventions when it comes to philosophy?

Moreover, surely the conventionalist doesn’t believe that it’s only a question of the definitions of words: he also stresses our concepts. In other words, he asks questions about how our concepts determine how we see, conceive of, or interpret the world. Indeed, if it were all just a question of the definitions of words, then conventionalists would be little more than linguists or even lexicographers.

Perhaps conventionalists, on the other hand, don’t give up on the world at all. They may simply argue that our words, concepts, conventions, and indeed our definitions are important when it comes to our classifications, descriptions, analyses, etc. of reality or the world.


Note:

(1) Perhaps Sider would rely on physics to establish that correct concepts are definable in terms of the necessary and sufficient conditions of what is is that the concept applies to. He certainly wouldn’t limit his position to conceptual truths.

Does Quantum Mechanics Give Us Our Freedom?

 The following essay will focus on what’s called agent causation. It’s clear that the inspiration for this notion is the widely-accepted view that quantum mechanics is fundamentally indeterministic (e.g., such as in radioactive decay). In other words, it doesn’t abide by the strict causal determinism of classical physics. Many readers will now be able to see the appeal of agent causation when it comes to the debate about free will. That’s for the simple reason that it includes the idea that human actions are neither determined nor random. Instead, the (human) agent has complete control of all his/her actions.

It may seem odd to some readers that quantum mechanics has been used to advance a position for free will. Of course, other people have embraced this reliance on quantum mechanics.

At first, it almost seems as if the argument is that because quantum mechanics is “weird”, then this must (or at least may) explain free will. This parallels the often-quoted position about consciousness. As in:

“Consciousness is a mystery, and quantum physics is a mystery; maybe they’re the same mystery.”

Of course, it will be very easy to tie consciousness and free will together. So no wonder the quote above is relevant here. For a start, you can’t have (human) free will without consciousness. More accurately, you can’t have free will without self-consciousness.

Agent Causation

Quantum mechanics breaks the strict causal determinism of classical physics. And libertarians jump on that. They detect a “gap” between physical determinism and non-physical agent causation.

Another huge factor in that appeal is the fact that those who believe in agent causation are mainly inspired by the requirements of morality. For example, the American philosopher Ned Markosian believes that a person’s actions are caused only by their own agency. Such (free) actions form or shape the moral character of human persons.

Roderick Chisholm’s incompatibilist view is even more clear. He believed that free action originates from the agent alone. (See origination.) In other words, free action is never determined by prior physical events. That said, the agent can be aware — and reason about — prior physical events.

Quantum Randomness!

The first — and most obvious — thing to state is that quantum-mechanical randomness cannot possibly be the basis for free will. How on earth would an action caused by a random quantum fluctuation in the brain be the basis of an agent’s rational choice? However, the libertarian has an answer to that question. As the American philosopher Theodore Sider puts it:

“A libertarian might concede that quantum randomness is not *sufficient* for freedom, but nevertheless claim that quantum randomness *makes room* for freedom, because it makes room for agent causation.”

On the surface, that just seems like a statement of a position, not an argument for it. The idea is, however, that the libertarian acknowledges the nature of quantum randomness. Thus, it only makes room for agent causation.

We must now be given an explanation of what agent causation is, and how it makes room for freedom.

Sider then provides an explanation of this too. He writes:

“After assigning these probabilities, the work of quantum mechanics is complete. According to some libertarians, agent causation now steps in. After quantum mechanics sets the probabilities, Hitler himself chooses, by agent causation, which decision he will in fact make. Physics sets the probabilities, but *people*, by agent causation, ultimately decide what occurs.”

Many readers will realise that this is the same as the first explanation, only with the addition of the name ‘Hitler’ and some extra detail. In other words, the quoted passage above still doesn’t explain what agent causation is. It’s no use saying that agent causation now steps in after quantum probabilities are set if we aren’t given an explanation of what agent causation is.

In the quote above, we have a scenario which is completely scientific in nature. And then, all of a sudden, something that hasn’t been given a scientific explanation — the agent — jumps into that scenario. Indeed, if the agent and its actions haven’t been given a scientific explanation in the first place, then what justifies the second word “causation”?

Nonetheless, certain libertarians believe that their account is not anti-scientific. Their scenario is meant to make science and agent causation exist together. More importantly, it’s meant to make science and human freedom gel together. But, so far, that’s only via stipulation or fiat.

In any case, Sider states that “the coexistence picture makes agent causation a slave to quantum-mechanical probabilities”. In other words, the libertarian thinks that there are two very different things here: quantum probabilities and agent causation. Yet Sider is arguing that the former must in someway determine the latter.

Another way of putting this is to state that there’s no point in accepting the existence of quantum-mechanical probabilities and their relation to agent causation if that precise relation isn’t mapped out. What role do the probabilities play if we can question how the agent can neatly override them?

Sider puts the case in another way. He states that

“[a]gent causation, if it is to be worth anything, must be capable of disrupting the probabilities given by quantum mechanics”.

Thus, something non-physical would need to disrupt something physical (if also probabilistic).

Again, it can be asked why libertarians accept probabilities — or even so much as mention them. In other words, if they painted a picture of free will without any mention at all of probabilities, then what difference would that make?

What is an Agent?

What of this agent, and how does it interact with the physical brain? Is the word “causation” at all justified in this context?

There is at least a partial explanation of what an agent is. Negatively, it is said not to be an event which can cause events. In other words, an agent is an entity of some kind. When we see an agent as an entity, not an event, then agent causation can be distinguished from event causation. The latter is when an event causes another event. (Such as punching someone in the face causes that person to pass out.) In the former case, however, an entity can cause various events.

This position goes back to Scottish philosopher Thomas Reid. He believed that agents are the only entities which/who have a will. Wills, embedded in human persons, can cause events.

Alternatively, perhaps we can get to the agent via the brain.

Many people believe that the complex system that is the brain can exhibit emergent properties. These properties may include intentions, consciousness, and agent causation itself. Thus, just as some see consciousness and intentions as being emergent, so too can the agent be seen that way…

But, again, saying that the agent is emergent doesn’t say what it is or how it brings about any form of causation. Indeed, the non-physical agent would need to be responsible for what’s called “downward causation” on the physical brain…

This is the Cartesian problem of mind-brain interaction all over again.

From the Quantum Scale to the Classical Scale

One phrase readers will often find in this debate is “leveraging quantum effects”. It’s the agent (or brain?) who/which is supposed to do this leveraging. This suggests that agent causation could be a higher-level phenomenon which is compatible with fundamental physics. However, it still wouldn’t be reducible to physics.

Relatedly, in order for quantum effects to influence a macroscopic action (like moving left rather than right), they’d need to be amplified to a classical scale. The American philosopher Daniel Dennett made these points when he picked up on this issue:

“Most biologists think that quantum effects all just cancel out in the brain, that there’s no reason to think they’re harnessed in any way. Of course they’re there; quantum effects are there in your car, your watch, and your computer. But most things — most macroscopic objects — are, as it were, oblivious to quantum effects. They don’t amplify them; they don’t hinge on them.”

It was then that Dennett referred specifically to Roger Penrose, who “thinks that the brain somehow exploits quantum effects”.

This is Dennett’s position again:

Sure, there are quantum happenings in the brain as a whole or in neurons individually. Then again, there are quantum happenings in your car, watch and television.

Against Dennett, it can be said that it may be true that in order for Dennett’s car to be a car, it doesn’t depend on the quantum effects which are occurring inside it. However, why should that also be true of the brain and its relation to free will (or consciousness)? The nature and functioning of a car (or watch) is very different to the reality and functioning of the brain and its relation to free will. A car is (to use Dennett’s word) “oblivious” to the quantum effects inside — though only if it is treated qua car! However, it’s indeed the case that a car can be analysed as a medium of quantum effects.

We’ll now need to know exactly why quantum effects don’t transfer to the brain as a whole. Alternatively, why aren’t quantum effects (to use Dennett’s words) “amplified” and “exploited” by the brain? More specifically, we’ll need to know why such things don’t cause (or bring about) free will (or consciousness). In other words:

Why is there such a sharp dividing line between Dennett’s quantum effects in the brain (or in neurons) and free will (or consciousness) itself?

Surely there can’t be such a neat and tidy cut-off point (a Heisenberg cut) between these two worlds. Then again, it’s not logically absurd to argue that there is such a divide, just not a neat and tidy one.