Since
I've read many analytic philosophers (if not analytic metaphysicians)
criticising not only the notion of “intuitions” - but also the
philosophical reliance on them, I find it hard to make sense of
Ladyman and Ross's stress on such a thing.
Sure,
some philosophers have noted and even relied on intuitions; though
many haven't. Though, as I argue later, it's almost impossible not to
begin one's philosophical pursuits without utilising one's
intuitions. And, it may follow from that, that if one's intuitions
are acknowledged as a starting point, that starting point is bound to have an affect on much of what follows.
Having
said that, it's indeed ironic, at least prima facie, that
metaphysicians rely at all on intuitions. Isn't it far more likely
that an epistemologist or a philosopher of mind (for reasons I hope
are obvious) would stress or even rely on intuitions?
A
Case for Intuitions
There
are many arguments in favour of intuitions... and not all of them use
intuitions.
For
example, you must start from somewhere. And the best - or even the
only - place to start from in philosophy (as in most things) is from
one's own intuitions. Indeed it's hard to even make sense of the idea
of starting from anywhere else. And if you start from your own
intuitions (I stress the word 'start'), then it may be equally - or
more - wise to take on board collective (as it were) intuitions as
well.
Bearing
all that in mind, it's hardly a cardinal sin when metaphysicians
begin by using phrases such as "it is intuitive that..." or
"it is counter-intuitive that..." (the examples given by
Ladyman and Ross) when, presumably, such people won't end their
philosophical pursuits with such phrases.
So
when Ladyman and Ross say that intuitions aren't scientific data, the
metaphysician may simply say: “Yes, I know. And?”
On
the one hand, it may be understandable to argue against intuitions
regarding, say, quantum mechanics or the nature of DNA. However,
many mathematicians and scientists (ranging from Kurt Godel and Alan
Turing to Roger Penrose) have happily stressed the importance of
intuitions in both mathematics and physics. (Though, admittedly,
perhaps not in quite the same way the guilty metaphysicians do.)
You
can also defend the existence and utilisation of intuitions without
using the phrase (which I noted in Ladyman and Ross's paper and
elsewhere) “the faculty of intuition”. That sounds like the kind
of reification that Gilbert Ryle warned against some seventy years
ago. Indeed if people do believe in such a faculty, it will take on a
role similar to that of Kant's a priori 'categories' or even the
amygdala. In that case, just as philosophers could have asked Kant
why he thought that the mind's concepts or categories were a-historical and
universal; so a contemporary critic can ask why (some) metaphysicians
think that our faculty of intuition is reliable and/or static from
(say) an evolutionary or biological point of view.
Though,
again, our intuitions need not be seen as a priori, a-historical
or even as constituting a faculty as such.
It
would be wise to say, then, that when contemporary metaphysicians
appeal to intuitions, they don't (or, at least, they ought not to) refer
to some magical ability which only they possess. Rather, they're
simply using semi-rhetorical language; of which there are many other
examples in analytic philosophy (such as "surely...", "it is
obvious that...").
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