[Although the quotations in this piece have page numbers, I can't remember the books or papers from which they were taken. Some readers may know.]
Nominalist PrimitivismThe realist as regards universals believes that many particulars exemplify a particular universal and that this is a ‘primitive’ or ‘basic’ fact about the world. The nominalist, on the other hand, thinks more or less the same about the fact that “different objects agree in attribute by all being triangular” (1).
The
question now is: What do they mean by
‘primitive’ or ‘basic’?
Is
anything in the world that is truly primitive? What is the
‘exemplification’ of universals in things? What do the
nominalists mean by ‘agree’ in ‘different objects agree in
attribute’? Perhaps Michael Loux will explain:
“…
we are to take
agreement in attribute to be a fundamental or unanalysable feature of
the world… There are no prior facts that serve to explain these
facts; they constitute the primitive materials out of which we
construct our story of the world.”
Of
course the notion of fundamentality or unanalysability has
been used many times before in the history of philosophy. For G.E.
Moore, for example, the property goodness was deemed to be
unanalysable. For Wittgenstein (in the Tractatus), simple
objects were seen in the same way. In addition, truth is seen this
way by many philosophers.
There
must be a reason (or reasons) why we “take agreement in attribute”
between different particulars. Surely we can't get away with simply
saying that this agreement is ‘fundamental’ or ‘unanalysable’
– why should anyone else accept these predicates at all? Aren’t
they cop-outs or neat sidesteps of the issue? Just to argue that
“every ontological account must take some facts as primitive or
basic” (or that physics does the same) is simply not enough of a
reason or answer. We need to ask why and how they are primitive or
unanalysable. There may, for example, be an argument that such things halt some kind of infinite
regress. However, we still need to know why we have chosen the
agreement in attributes between objects - or the exemplification of
universals as properties - as such primitives.
Just
as the nominalist takes the Platonic position "one step earlier"
by taking “the original fact that certain things are triangular as
basic” rather than relying on the basic fact of the exemplification
of universals in particulars, why can’t we also take the nominalist
position one step earlier by giving a more substantive and
descriptive account of agreement, resemblance or whatever?
Nominalist Reformulations
The
problem is linguistic, according to the nominalist. That is, we
believe in the existence of universals because sentences like
“Sphericity
is a shape.”
have
a property (or attribute) as the subject-term (or noun-phrase) of a
subject-predicate sentence. And because the name ‘Tony Blair’ in
“Tony
Blair is a liar.”
refers
to the person Tony Blair, we assume that the ‘sphericity’ in
“Sphericity is a shape” must refer to a universal – or at least
to something.
Some
philosophers (including Michael Loux) believe that nominalists “deny the
existence of properties” (1). If that's indeed the case, then the
nominalist
“is
obliged to offer analyses of all sentences which contain words
apparently referring to properties in terms of sentences which
contain no such words” (1).
For
a start, do nominalists really deny the existence of properties or do
they simply think that they're not the instantiations of universals
and are thus only found in objects?
In
any case, how will a simple reformulation of a sentence alone get rid
of universals or properties? If I choose never to refer to God (or
use the word ‘God’), that won't take God out of existence. If no
one used the word ‘God’, and if everyone reformulated all the
sentences which refer to God in a bona fide atheistic manner, that
alone wouldn’t get rid of God (as it were).
Loux
goes on to explain the nominalist position thus:
“…
the sentences
appear to express claims about universals, but are really just
disguised ways of making claims about familiar concrete particulars…
For every sentence incorporating an abstract singular term, it is
possible to identify a sentence in which the term does not appear but
the corresponding general term does, such that the latter sentence
gives the meaning of the former.” (1, Loux, 2002: 65-66)
Of
course to the layperson the sentence “Sphericity is a shape”
doesn't “appear to express [a] claim about [a] universal”. It
simply makes a claim about spherical objects (or, less likely, about
the property being spherical). However, if ‘sphericity’ is
a noun (or an abstract singular term), then this may not be logically
or philosophically acceptable.
In
any case, perhaps the layperson is tacitly or implicitly referring to
the universal. In that case, both the realist and the nominalist are
offering us (or discovering) the true logical form of the
aforementioned sentence. The nominalist is arguing that the sentence
is a disguised way of making a claim about a universal. The realist is
saying that the logical form is apparent; though not (as it were)
taken literally when it's not taken as a claim about a universal.
More
technically, Loux makes a distinction between the
nominalistically-unacceptable abstract singular term (‘sphericity’)
and the nominalist general term which will be its substitution.
What would that general-term substitution of the abstract singular
term ‘sphericity’ be?
What is the substitution of
1)
“Sphericity is a shape.”
that's given by the nominalist? This:
2)
“All spherical things are shaped things.”
Prima
facie, it's very hard to accept the latter as an analysis (or
anything else) of the former! There are many differences between the
two.
For
a start, 2) is about spherical things. 1) isn't about things at all.
In fact 1) is about a shape, not about a thing or things. 1)
attributes or predicates something to the property sphericity;
whereas 2) predicates something to things. We can even say that 2) is
analytic (or partly analytic) in that the subjects (‘spherical
things’) are by definition ‘shaped things’. 1), on the other
hand, seems to offer us information about sphericity itself – that
it ‘is a shape’. However, we can say that this is partly analytic
too; though not in the direct manner of 2).
The
bizarre thing is that 2) still contains what can be taken as
references to universals anyway. Spherical things and shaped
things are themselves universals, aren’t they?
Philip
Goff writes that
“analysing
all sentences which make reference to properties into sentences which
do not make reference to properties is a tricky business”.
Isn’t
it the case that in
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
the
predicates ‘spherical’ and ‘shaped’ do indeed “make
reference to properties”? It's just the case that ‘spherical’
and ‘shaped’ are adjectival terms; whereas ‘sphericity’ is an
abstract singular term or a noun. Does that difference alone make the
above fully nominalist or even nominalist at all? Surely adjectives
like ‘spherical’ and ‘shaped’ are just as parasitical on
universals as the abstract singular term ‘sphericity’ is!
I
would say that
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
proves
Goff’s point that there
“are
true sentences containing reference to properties which are not
analysable into sentences which do not contain reference to
properties” (2).
Yes,
the above ‘analysis’ is proof of this. Goff calls this the
principle of semantic irreducibility (PSI). The “reference to
properties” is unavoidable in the nominalist analysis. Thus it's
semantically irreducible.
Despite
the problem for such nominalist reductions, Loux argues that such
reductions or analyses are “essential for avoiding a commitment to
properties” (2). That is, not properties per se; but
property-terms which are abstract singular terms which themselves
can’t help but refer to universals. Thus we can ask if Loux is
against both ‘sphericity’ and ‘spherical’ (or ‘shaped’)
or only against the nominalist use of ‘sphericity’. It must be
both because in
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
the
nominalist does get rid of the predicate ‘sphericity’. The
question is, is it an acceptable analysis (or reduction) and is it
the case that the predicates ‘spherical’ and ‘shape’ don’t
refer to properties and therefore to universals? According to Goff,
then, Loux is committed to the principle of the necessity of
reduction (PNR). Or, rather, Loux thinks that the nominalist must, or
should, be committed to this principle and thus be able to formulate
an acceptable reduction of all the questionable sentences which
include references to universals. If the nominalist can't carry out
such a reduction, according to Loux, “then properties exist” (2).
Isn’t
all this very linguistic in nature? That is, even if the nominalist can’t successfully offer
us reductions or analyses of the suspect sentences which include
references to universals, does that automatically mean that
universals must therefore exist? Similarly, if the nominalist can (or
could) carry out such reductions, would that automatically mean that
universals don't exist? Surely what we can and can't do with our
sentences (or with our grammar) doesn't affect the existence or
non-existence of universals. People use the predicates ‘God’,
‘Pegasus’ and even ‘the round square’, Quine uses the word
‘meaning’ and Paul Churchland uses the word ‘belief’. These
people don't believe that these things exist. So why should the
sentence “Sphericity is a shape” bring the universal sphericity
into existence (as it were)? Likewise why should the sentence
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
stop
universals from existing or even prove their non-existence (even if
the above is an acceptable analysis or reduction)? Perhaps, then,
such concerns are normative and grammatical in nature. That is, if
you think that universals don't exist, then say
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
and
that will be fine. On the other hand, if you think that universals do
exist, then say
“Sphericity
is a shape.”
and
that too will be fine. Your particular formulation will show other people
your ontological commitments. It will neither prove nor disprove the
existence of universals, just as Bertrand Russell's
“There
is at least one thing, such that this none thing is king of France.”
didn't
prove (or even show) that the king of France did not in fact exist.
It showed us, instead, that the formulator himself doesn't believe
that the king of France exists. (Perhaps the formulation alone doesn't
show us that the king of France doesn't exist.) And neither does
“All
spherical things are shaped things.”
show
us that the universal sphericity doesn't exist, just as
“Sphericity
is a shape.”
doesn't
show us that the universal sphericity does exist.
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