Sunday, 14 May 2023

Is There a Hard Problem of Consciousness… and of Everything Else?

Philosopher Dr. Kane Baker argues that there are hard problems of liquidity, white walls, balls, and, indeed, “everything”. He cites three examples: (1) There’s a logical possibility that “you have the same H₂O microstructure, but you just don’t have liquidity”. (2) You can look at a white wall, and yet it doesn’t “manifest as an experience of whiteness”. (3) It’s even logically possible that a “second billiard ball”, after being hit by another billiard ball, “explodes, or suddenly shrinks and disappears”.

Dr. Kane Baker (left) and David Chalmers.

(i) Introduction
(ii) Philosophical Why-Questions
(iii) The Hard Problem of Consciousness
(iv) The Hard Problem of Liquidity
(v) The Hard Problem of White Walls
(vi) The Hard Problem of Balls

This essay is a commentary on Dr. Kane Baker’s YouTube presentation ‘The Hard Problem of Everything’. (On YouTube, Baker is known as Kane B.) I copied his spoken words from the YouTube ‘Show transcript’ function. Thus, I needed to edit his words a little in order to make them more readable. However, I didn’t change any of Baker’s philosophical content.

[The words “the hard problem of consciousness” were coined by the philosopher David Chalmers.]

Philosophical Why-Questions

Dr. Kane Baker offers his YouTube viewers a broad take on what can be called (using a hyphen) why-questions. He says:

“In general, when it comes to giving explanations, the why-questions can be extended indefinitely. [] You know the thing that sometimes kids do where they just ask why why why. They just endlessly ask why.”

Baker continues:

“That might be annoying, but of course you can do that, and it’s not really clear that there’s anything rationally illegitimate about doing that. [] Why not just ask why again and again?”

So are all these why-questions always (or only) annoying?

What needs to be said here is that many of those people who question these questions may not actually find them “annoying” at all. That is, philosophical why-questions aren’t always questioned because the critics are annoyed by them, or because they’re too lazy, philistine, materialistic, or scientistic to answer them. Instead, they may question why-questions for very good philosophical and/or scientific reasons.

In Kane Baker’s case, one solution to endless why-questions is to posit brute facts. (This will be discussed later.)

In Baker’s own words:

“So why-questions can can continue indefinitely, and then it seems like there’s really only going to be three ways to stop them. One option is to say, ‘Well, there actually just is no explanation. It’s a brute fact.’ [] So we’re just at the level of brute fact. [] It seems like eventually we just get to a point where you know we end up with a brute fact.”

There are, of course, other options other than positing brute facts. According to Kane, one option is simply to say, “I don’t know.”

[See the note (1) on Gordan Park Baker’s position on philosophical why-questions.]

Of course, the ultimate hard question is the one about consciousness.

The Hard Problem of Consciousness

So, firstly, Kane Baker sets the scene in the following way:

“Let’s say we have a theory [that] whenever you have a conscious state, that’s correlated with certain neural state. [] Whenever you have an experience of redness, that’s correlated with certain specific neural states of the brain.”

Baker then repeats a story by asking various familiar hard questions about these corelations:

“You can ask why do those correlations hold? That’s basically the hard problem of consciousness. It seems you could have those physical states without the experiential state. [] What we haven’t explained is why those correlations or connections to consciousness hold.”

What can we conclude from all this?

Baker states the following:

“The normal explanatory methods that we have in science are just not going to answer this.”

He continues:

“The thought is that even if we had a complete description of the physical states of the brain (the physical neural processes going on in the brain), we still wouldn’t really have an understanding of consciousness because we could we would still face this question of why is it that these neural states are the ones that realise consciousness.”

… But Baker then adds something extra, as well as something radical!

He tells us that

“but then I kind of feel that’s the case with everything”.

Baker’s first example (i.e., from the long list of “everything”) is the “underlying microstructure of water” and why it “manifests itself as liquidity”.

The Hard Problem of Liquidity

Kane Baker says:

“I don’t see anything logically incoherent here. Imagine a world where you have that microstructure, but you just don’t have liquidity — you have solidity or just something else. I think that this kind of why question is still there. Why does this correlation hold?”

[You do “have solidity” — or ice — under particular ambient conditions. However, that doesn’t really impact on Baker’s philosophical point.]

Baker is comparing (in a strong way) H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity to the physical brain (or, perhaps, other physical things) and its relation to a conscious state.

Thus, Kane asks the following two hard questions about liquidity:

“Why does water have this property of liquidity? How do we explain the property of liquidity?”

Baker says that the obvious (scientific) answer to this hard question is that “we break [water] down into H₂O molecules” and then analyse their collective microstructure. However, that example of scientific analysis — or even reduction! — still doesn’t answer the hard question.

In Baker’s own words:

“Why is it the case that the H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity?”

Baker then mentions David Hume’s position on causation (see here) and connects it to the relation between H₂O molecules and liquidity. He says:

“Hume and lots of people have suggested that there are no conceptual connections between causes and effects.”

… Hang on a minute!

This comparison doesn’t seem to work in the case of liquidity.

This is because the relation of H₂O molecules to liquidity simply isn’t a question of cause and effect. The liquidity is always simply (as it were) there in the molecular microstructure of H₂O molecules.

[All this is to assume that certain ambient external physical conditions obtain. However, if they don’t, then H₂O molecules can, in particular cases, instantiate solidity, not liquidity.]

More clearly, cause and effect is (usually?) seen as being a temporal matter. That is, the cause proceeds — in time — the effect. However, when it comes to H₂O molecules and liquidity, you don’t firstly get an instantiation of a sufficient number of H₂O molecules, followed (in time) by liquidity. Instead, when you have a sufficient number of H₂O molecules existing under certain ambient conditions, then, at one and the same time, you also have liquidity.

What’s more, the Humean (psychological) point that the

“reason why we expect the second ball to start rolling in a particular direction is because that is what we have actually observed — at least in similar scenarios”

simply doesn’t apply to the microstructural properties of H₂O molecules and liquidity either. This is because we don’t expect liquidity “because that is what we have actually observed — at least in similar scenarios”.

The physical, chemical and structural facts about H₂O and liquidity aren’t really about what we expect (i.e., as in effects following causes) or even solely about our observations. The H₂O-liquidity story was largely theoretical and experimental in nature. So surely it was never the case that chemists frequently observed the microstructure of a set of H₂O molecules being followed by liquidity. As already stated, that’s because this isn’t a temporal or Humean phenomenon.

So this isn’t about our psychological habits either. [See Hume and ‘Principles of association’.]

Thus, the question as to why H₂O molecules “manifest as liquidity?” (or as ice) seems to be bogus. Again, this is because the structural and physical properties of H₂O molecules — among many other things posited by physics and chemistry — simply are (or they constitute) liquidity (i.e., under certain ambient conditions).

Thus, asking why H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity is almost the same as asking why the Morning Star manifests itself as the Evening Star or why Eric Blair manifested himself as George Orwell. More fundamentally, then, it’s not far from asking why x manifests as x.

To sum up.

H₂O molecules don’t manifest liquidity — at least not in Baker’s Humean sense. A set of H₂O molecules — under certain ambient conditions — simply have the property of liquidity.

However, a set of H₂O molecules isn’t one and the same thing as all human (sensory and psychological) experiences of liquidity. So perhaps this is what Baker is getting at.

All that said, it may well be the case that Baker isn’t using the word “manifest” in such a causal way!

After all, the word “manifest” isn’t necessarily — or automatically — tied to causality or to cause-then-effect reasoning. However, it’s in the nature of these philosophical why-questions that even if we accept that the relation between H₂O molecules and liquidity isn’t temporal or causal, then it can still be asked why H₂O molecules (under particular ambient conditions) have the property of liquidity!

[It needs to be added here — as already hinted at — that H₂O molecules are liquid only if the ambient temperature is somewhere between freezing and boiling, if there is sufficient gravitational attraction to hold the molecules together, etc. However, if all these (as it were) external physical conditions obtain, then the given H₂O molecules are liquid and all the arguments above still hold. Similarly, if freezing ambient conditions obtain, then H₂O molecules are (to use Kane Baker’s word) “solid” — that is, ice.]

In detail. Even though the structural and physical properties of H₂O molecules instantiate liquidity because the latter and the former are one and the same thing, it can still be asked why they do so.

Yet this is like asking the following question:

If we place four matchsticks at right angles to each other, then why do they constitute the shape of a square?

… Sure, but what about consciousness?

Is all the above also true of the physical basis of consciousness and consciousness itself?

Is there a time lag between the instantiation of certain brain states — and all the other internal and external physical things required for consciousness — and the instantiation of a conscious state itself?

An old-style identity theorist would simply say that the physical states are the conscious states. (This doesn’t stop it from being the case that a human subject will have a first-person mode of presentation of those physical states.) So this cause-then-effect reasoning simply wouldn’t work for such a theorist. That said, even if one isn’t an identity theorist, the idea of the sum of the physical states required for a conscious state being followed (in time) by that conscious state still seems wrong.

Brute Facts?

So, again, why is it the case that the H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity?

Here’s Baker’s brute fact option:

“They just do. It’s just a brute fact.”

Yet if you accept this brute fact for H₂O molecules and liquidity, then why not accept it for physical (or brain) states and a conscious state too?

Kane himself continues:

“Of course, you could say the same with consciousness. Why is it the case that these physical states of the brain manifest as consciousness? Well, it’s just a brute fact.”

There’s a problem here.

Whereas many people would accept the brute fact option for H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity, they wouldn’t also accept it for physical states and their relation to consciousness.

In Kane’s own words:

“In the case of water and H₂O molecules, that particular brute fact seems to be intellectually satisfying to people. It seems to scratch the intellectual itch of explanation. In the case of consciousness, that’s not so right.”

So why are these two cases different?

Kane continues:

“When we explain all of the processes going on in the brain, that doesn’t scratch the intellectual itch.”

However, Baker doesn’t seem so see this as being a big deal. This is because he believes that “it seems to be purely a matter of people’s psychology”. That is:

“Some people find the the explanation satisfying. Some people don’t. And that’s it.”

Now to change tack again.

Just as Baker applies what is said about the hard problem of consciousness to the hard problem of liquidity, so now he discusses the hard problem of white walls.

The Hard Problem of White Walls

Firstly, this is a different case to H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity. The simple reason for that is that in this new scenario Kane Baker is discussing people’s experiences of white walls. That is, unlike the microstructure of H₂O molecules and liquidity, Baker is now discussing what he calls a “phenomenal property”.

Baker says:

“When I look at a wall and I see a particular color, I’m undergoing a certain conscious state. I’m presented with a certain phenomenal property: the whiteness of the wall. There’s something it’s like to see the whiteness of the wall. And you can describe in complete detail all of the processes going on in my head. You can describe the patterns of stimulation on my retina. You can describe the information going down the optic nerve. You can describe all of the brain processes going on.”

But then comes Baker’s clincher:

“But even if you do complete that task, it seems like there’s still this further question of why would any of that stuff manifests as an experience of whiteness.”

In simple terms, then, why does the complete physical and chemical story of walls, white paint, our sensory systems and brains, etc. result in an experience of whiteness?

Moreover, we can now ask the very same questions which we formerly asked about the relation between brain states (or anything physical) and conscious states. That is:

“Why does that correlation hold [i.e., between walls and the experience of white]? Why is there that connection?”

Thus, Kane argues that what is true of consciousness “is true for literally everything else”. In other words, he believes that “there’s a hard problem of everything”. More radically, he concludes by saying that “everything escapes a complete scientific explanation”.

The Hard Problem of Balls

Kane Baker’s next (Humean) point is a little different too.

Rather than imagining effects not necessarily being tied to their causes, this time it’s a question of the effects being different — perhaps very different — to those we usually experience.

[This issue has been done to death in the literature of analytic philosophy, as can be seen when in comes to the debates about inverted qualia, absent qualia, dancing qualia, fading qualia, and suchlike.]

Baker says:

“Hume most famously makes this point that [if you] look at any given cause, you can imagine any effect could occur.”

Baker then provides an example of this:

“So if I imagine one billiard ball rolling along table and connecting with another billiard ball (because we’ve observed this sort of thing has happened many times), we expect that that what will happen is that the second billiard ball will move. But there’s no kind of conceptual or logical necessity to that. It could be the case that the first billiard ball rolls along the table, it touches the second billiard ball, and then the second billiard ball explodes, or the second billiard balls starts spinning, or the second billiard ball suddenly shrinks and disappears. Anything could happen.”

It’s interesting that David Hume (or at least Baker’s Hume) stressed imagination and logical possibility just as René Descartes had famously done before him (see here), and which David Chalmers still does today. That is, this is all a question of conceiving (or imagining) a second billiard ball doing things second balls don’t normally do. Or, in Baker’s own words, “there’s no kind of conceptual or logical necessity” that the second billiard ball behaves in the way second billiard balls usually behave. Thus, we can imagine (or conceive) of the second billiard ball, when hit by the first ball, flying off into a distant galaxy, turning into a chicken, etc. (These a logical possibilities, but not all are natural or metaphysical possibilities.)

So it’s somewhat inevitable that Baker also brings in possible worlds here.

Baker states the following:

“You could say, ‘Well the world I’m describing is not a possible world.’ In this context, that seems to be question begging because [we can ask], ‘Why isn’t it possible?’ ‘Why isn’t that a possible world?’”

Most scientists would never argue that Baker’s scenarios are impossible. Instead, they may ask what work these imaginings and posited possibilities are actually doing.

A second billiard ball exploding, or flying off into another galaxy, etc. may indeed be logically possible (or such things may occur in possible worlds) — but so what!

This repetitive and omnipresent stress (at least in analytic philosophy) on conceivings, conceptual possibilities, and what happens in possible worlds, is all well and good — but where does it all take us?

So perhaps many physicists would ignore (or even laugh at) these conceivings. That’s because there’s nothing to hold philosophical conceivers back when it comes to what they can — and cannot — conceive. In other words, almost anything goes when it comes to these philosophical conceivings (bar logical impossibilities).

In any case, Kane Baker’s general point is that what people say about the hard problem of consciousness can also be said about a second billiard ball, H₂O molecules and liquidity, our experiences of the whiteness of a wall, and, indeed, everything else.

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Note:

(1) As the American-English philosopher Gordon Park Baker (1938–2002, and no relation to Kane Baker) put it:

“The unexamined question is not worth answering.”

Baker added:

“To accept a question as making good sense and embark on building a philosophical theory to answer it is already to make the decisive step in the whole investigation.”

Another problem is summed up by Gordon Baker:

“Questions, just as much as assertions, carry presuppositions.”

Baker’s questions about questions are partly Wittgensteinian in nature. Thus, readers can certainly note his Wittgensteinian points in the following:

[T]o suppose that the answers to philosophical questions await discovery is to presuppose that the questions themselves make sense and stand in need of answers (not already available). Why should this not be a fit subject for philosophical scrutiny?”

Indeed, Wittgenstein did have things to say on the nature of many philosophical questions (both in his “early” and “late” periods). His position is partly summed up in this passage from Robert W. Angelo. (This ends with a quote from Wittgenstein himself.) Thus:

[N]onsense in the form of a question is still nonsense. Which is to say that the question-sign [] can only be rejected, not answered: ‘What is undefined is without meaning; this is a grammatical remark.’ [].”

Another good way of summing up the problem with these philosophical why-questions is also cited by Gordon Baker. He wrote:

“To pose a particular question is to take things for granted, to put some things beyond question or doubt, to treat some things as matters of course.”

One obvious “presupposition” to a question is that there’s an answer to it — or at least a possible answer.

To sum up. Aren’t the askers of these types of philosophical why-questions “taking certain things for granted”? That is, aren’t they taking for granted that their questions are legitimate and that there are answers? Moreover, aren’t these questioners also “put[ting] some things beyond question or doubt”, as well as “treat[ing] some things as matters of course”?

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Sunday, 7 May 2023

David Lewis on Knowledge, Justification, and the Lottery Paradox

The American philosopher David Kellogg Lewis (1942–2001) approached the lottery paradox from a philosophical angle. That is, he didn’t approach it in the same way as many mathematicians, scientists and logicians had previously done. Lewis, instead, focussed on knowledge and justification and their relation to the paradox… Yet knowledge and justification aren’t natural kinds. So this means that they can never have — or be given — determinate and entirely uncontroversial conditions of identity.

(i) Introduction
(ii) The Lottery Paradox
(iii) Knowledge Without Justification
(iv) We Don’t Even Know How We Know
(v) Foundationalism or Coherentism?

Since this essay is about David Lewis’s take on knowledge and justification as they relate to the lottery paradox, let’s start off with a relevant passage from the American philosopher (who died in 2001):

“The greater the number of losing tickers, the better is your justification for believing you will lose. Yet there is no number great enough to transform your fallible opinion into knowledge — after all, you just might win. No justification is good enough — or none short of a watertight deductive argument.”

[The quotes from David Lewis in this essay all come from his 1996 paper ‘Elusive Knowledge’.]

The passage above expresses a strong disjuncture between knowledge and justification.

However, firstly it needs to be noted that David Lewis used the terms “knowledge” and “justification” in extremely specific ways. That is, ways which are strongly beholden to many — though certainly not all — philosophical traditions. The most important tradition — relevant to this issue — is the one which had it that “knowledge is justified true belief”, which is a position which Lewis himself rejected. However, Lewis clearly bounced off this tradition. Indeed, his own position is an attempt to show that knowledge and justification can indeed run along separate lines.

Relevantly, and perhaps at odds with Lewis’s own position (as well as the knowledge-is-justified-true-belief position he rejected), it can be argued that knowledge and justification aren’t natural kinds which have — or can even be given — determinate and entirely uncontroversial conditions of identity.

[See note (1) on the British philosopher Michael Williams at the end of this essay.]

All this means that not all laypersons — not even many laypersons — use the words “knowledge” and “justification” in the same — technical — way in which Lewis did. And that’s simply because these are philosophical uses of such words.

Another thing which needs to be made clear (though it’s related to the points above) is that Lewis approached the lottery paradox from a philosophical angle. (This may well be a statement of the obvious.) That is, he didn’t approach the paradox in the same way as mathematicians, scientists and logicians had done before his 1996 paper.

For example, the lottery paradox was first considered by Henry E. Kyburg Jr. (The first published statement of the paradox can be found in Kyburg’s Probability and the Logic of Rational Belief of 1961.) Kyburg considered the paradox from a mainly mathematical angle. That is, he focussed on probability (as part of probability theory) and such like. He did, however, tie all that mathematics to human rationality and irrationality.

David Lewis, on the other hand, focussed on knowledge and justification and their relation to the lottery paradox.

Still, let’s now see how Lewis himself used the words “knowledge” and “justification”.

The Lottery Paradox

Say that there are a billion tickets in a lottery and they’ve all been sold to a billion different people. John buys a ticket in this lottery. It’s logically possible that he could win the jackpot. However, John may well be profoundly justified in believing that he will loose. That said, he still wouldn’t have knowledge that he will loose. That’s because — again — he may, after all, win.

In that case, why doesn’t John simply concede that he will probably loose, rather than that he will loose?

This introduction of probability, however, still involves the notion of justification.

If it’s highly probable that John will loose, then surely he’s justified in his belief that he will loose. However, that high probably doesn’t make his claim (belief) that he will loose become an expression of knowledge.

David Lewis argued that it’s not just a case that the (level of) justification in this particular case isn’t good enough to (as it were) turn justification into knowledge. He argued that it’s the case that no (to his own words) “justification would be good enough”. Again, there’s no miraculous point in which justification suddenly (or otherwise) turns into knowledge.

Thus, and as stated in the introduction, knowledge and justification are torn asunder… Or, at least according to Lewis, knowledge and justification are torn asunder.

More technically, knowledge is not (as Lewis put it)adequately justified belief”. Basically, then, knowledge and justification are two different kinds.

So instead of believing that adequate justification will give us knowledge, perhaps John should — at least in some cases defined by context - simply throw justification overboard entirely. Or, as Lewis put it, “justification is not always necessary”. [Lewis had much to say about context. See also ‘Contextualism’.]

[Here again, my own personal position is that knowledge and justification aren’t natural kinds which have — or can even be given — determinate and entirely uncontroversial conditions of identity. Thus, I have a problem we seeing justification and knowledge in such absolutist and categorical terms. This (as it were) deflationary position within — or perhaps toward — epistemology can, perhaps, be ignored for the purposes of this essay… Or can it?]

In any case, Lewis provided us with his own examples of knowledge which don’t require justification.

Knowledge Without Justification

David Lewis asked his readers the following question:

“What (non-circular) argument supports our reliance on perception, on memory, and on testimony?”

Lewis’s point is that John’s uses of perception in the past are believed to justify his uses of perception in the present. Yet this is a circular position. That is, John is using past instances of perception to justify his uses of perception in the present.

But what if John hadn’t even justified his past uses of perception?

That would mean that his present uses wouldn’t be justified either.

Of course, it might well have been the case that John’s past uses of perception were indeed justified. However, do his past (or previous) justifications of his perceptions mean that he doesn’t need to justify his present perceptions? What’s more, what if those past (or previous) uses of perception were themselves dependent upon justifications which were even further back in his own history?

If that were the case, then John would have a regress on his hands. (A regress that, perhaps, could go all the way back to an initial reliance on perception which was not justified.)

Almost exactly the same remarks hold for John’s reliance on memory.

Past uses of memory — though only looking at them in the present —seem to John to have been correct representations of past (for want of a better word) realities. (Past uses of memory also helped John cope with what were deemed to be the realities of previous times.) However, how does John know today that those past uses of memory were in fact correct representations of past realities? Is it because he believes (today) the same about past… past uses of memory?

Lewis then offered his readers another interesting example of unjustified knowledge… Of course, the phrase “unjustified knowledge” may seem — at least to some readers — like an oxymoron.

We Don’t Even Know How We Know

Lewis argued that we know certain things even though

“we don’t even know how we know”.

So it could be the case that John doesn’t actually have “supporting arguments” to justify a particular present belief (or claim). In this case, that’s because he’s forgotten the previous justifications or supporting arguments. This also means that at one time John did have supporting arguments for that belief (or claim). However, he’s now forgotten them.

To put all that another way.

This particular belief (or claim) was justified at one time in the past. However, it isn’t (re)justified today. More relevantly, if this belief (or claim) was justified at one time in the past (that’s if it was adequately justified), then, Lewis argued, it needn’t be justified again today.

Not continually rejustifying all our beliefs (or claims) is a question of time constraints, context, and/or of epistemic common sense. In other words, if John were really required to re-justify all his beliefs (or claims) again and again, then he wouldn’t have time to acquire new beliefs (or bits of knowledge) — or even to so much as function in the world.

For example, John firmly believes that Adolf Hitler was the dictator of Germany from 1933 to 1945. Indeed, he believes that this belief (or claim) is an example of knowledge (i.e., if only on his part). However, John hasn’t justified this particular belief (or claim) for some considerable time (say, for over a decade). What’s more, other beliefs of his are dependent upon — or related to — this particular belief about Hitler. That is, John has derived other beliefs (or bits of knowledge) from this initial belief (or bit of knowledge). However, if he needed to continually re-justify this belief about Hitler, then perhaps he wouldn’t get around to justifying the beliefs that are dependent upon — or derived from — that belief (which was, after all, justified at one point in time).

All this is related to Ludwig Wittgenstein’s doubts about doubt (more correctly, doubts about global scepticism). Wittgenstein’s case against scepticism is simple.

We can’t doubt anything without exempting at least some things from doubt. [See note (2).]

So perhaps this is also either an argument for some kind of foundationalism, or, alternatively, for some kind of coherentism.

Foundationalism or Coherentism?

The argument above may be foundationalist — if only in a loose sense! — in that John must rely on certain beliefs not being continually re-justified in order to make way for — or even make possible — new beliefs. That said, his initial set of beliefs were in fact fully justified… at one point.

This means that John’s initial set of beliefs certainly won’t come under the epistemological rubric of self-evident (or unjustified) foundations.

On the other hand, the arguments above can also be deemed coherentist in that John’s new beliefs also depend upon — or derived from — an initial sets of his beliefs, which might, in turn, have depended on new beliefs (at the time) and on other sets of (even) older beliefs.

This is a coherentist picture in that it stresses the inter-relations between John’s beliefs within a set of his overall beliefs. That set itself includes subsets of beliefs and individual beliefs. What’s more, in this (epistemic) whole there are no genuinely foundational beliefs which take the weight of all the other beliefs (as it were) above them. In other words, this is (or it simply may be) a fully coherent system of mutually-supporting beliefs.

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Notes:

(1) Michael Williams’s position is primarily aimed at what he calls “epistemological realism”. He has it that the epistemological realist believes that there’s a single true analysis of both justification and knowledge.

Williams compares this kind of realism with the scientific analysis and classification of heat.

When the physicist or chemist explores the nature of heat, he looks for

“some underlying property, or structure of more elementary components, common to [all] hot things”.

Therefore, scientific realists (though not necessarily scientists themselves!) see heat as a natural kind. In other words, for the scientific realist,

“deep structural features of the elementary components of things determine the boundaries of natural, as opposed to merely nominal or conventional, kinds”.

The epistemological realist attempts to do the same kind of thing with knowledge and justification. Thus, he believes that “there must be underlying epistemological structures or principles”.

Now take the specific case of justified true belief (which, as we’ve seen, David Lewis reacted against).

For a long time, many epistemologists argued that knowledge is justified true belief . Then along came Edmund Gettier’s demonstration that this analysis of knowledge (to use Williams’s word) “fails to state a sufficient condition for knowledge”.

So is that partly — or even largely — because knowledge is not a natural kind, thing or even property that can even be given a correct analysis in all situations? (This, as Williams also states, isn’t also to argue that there is no such the thing as knowledge.)

Again, Williams makes a connection with the analysis of heat in science. He writes:

[W]e might be inclined to suppose that just as in physics we study the nature of heat, so in philosophy we study the nature of [knowledge and justification]. But once plausible deflationary views are on the table, the analogy between [knowledge and justification] and things like heat can no longer be treated as unproblematic.”

Basically, then, epistemological realists — and many others — reify knowledge and justification. That is, they turn knowledge and justification (even when rejecting the knowledge-is-justified-true-belief thesis) into two essentially Platonic things.

(2) As Ludwig Wittgenstein put it in the posthumous book On Certainty:

“The questions that we raise and our doubts depend on the fact that some propositions are exempt from doubt, are as it were like hinges on which those [doubts] turn.
“That is to say, it belongs to the logic of our scientific investigations that certain things are in deed not doubted. []
“My life consists in my being content to accept many things.”

For example, you may doubt the geologist’s honesty or why he’s saying what he’s saying. Thus, these doubts must be (as the philosopher David Lewis himself put it in his paper ‘Elusive Knowledge’) “properly ignored”.

What’s at the heart of these exemptions is the context in which the doubt takes place.

As Wittgenstein (again) put it:

“Without that context, the doubt itself makes no sense: ‘The game of doubting itself presupposes certainty’; ‘A doubt without an end is not even a doubt.’”

If one doubts everything, then there’s no sense in doubting anything. Thus, doubt occurs within the context of unjustified belief.

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Tuesday, 2 May 2023

Are We All “Sheeple” Who Can’t Escape Our Conceptual Schemes or Epistemes?

The philosopher Michel Foucault argued that (most? all?) people don’t realise that the epistemes they exist within determine their experiences, “discourse”, beliefs and even behaviour. (According to Foucault, epistemes constitute “the historical a priori.)… So how did Foucault and similar theorists (e.g., Marx, etc.) escape from the conceptual schemes and/or epistemes they found themselves within? Indeed, did they really escape? More relevantly, do conceptual schemes and epistemes exist in the first place?

(i) Introduction: Conceptual Schemes
(ii) Michel Foucault on Epistemes
(iii) How Did Foucault Escape From His Episteme?
(iv) Hilary Putnam on Conceptual Schemes

Firstly, the title above may be a little misleading to some readers. That’s mainly because the essay itself doesn’t discuss specific political positions or specific political/social groups. In other words, there’s no claim here that a particular set of people are (or are not) sheeple because they believe x or y. Instead, this essay is (to quote Donald Davidson) “on the very idea of a conceptual scheme”.

This explanation is given because it sometimes seems as if many politicised young people (mainly males under the age of 22 and teenagers) are accusing everyone else — i.e., outside their own political flocks — of being “sheeple” (see here).

So why is that?

It’s surely because such young people deem sheeple to be the mindless (as it were) members of various conceptual schemes and/or epistemes (i.e., as these schemes and/or epistemes are embedded in specific nations/states and societies)… Not that that these two particular technical terms (i.e., “conceptual schemes” and “epistemes”) are ever actually used by most of those who refer to other people as sheeple.

Donald Davidson

More relevantly, in this essay the term “conceptual scheme” is used in pretty much the same (largely non-political) way in which the American philosopher Donald Davidson (1917–2003) used it.

Davidson (in his paper ‘On the Very Idea of a Conceptual Scheme’) wrote that conceptual schemes are “ways of organizing experience”, as well as “systems of categories that give form to the data of sensation”. More generally, they are “points of view from which individuals, cultures, or periods survey the passing scene”.

Yet despite just telling us what conceptual schemes are, Davidson didn’t actually believe that such things exist! [See my own essay, ‘There Are No Conceptual Schemes’.]

A more standard definition of a conceptual scheme is the following:

“The general system of concepts which shape or organize our thoughts and perceptions. The outstanding elements of our everyday conceptual scheme include spatial and temporal relations between events and enduring objects, causal relations, other persons, meaning-bearing utterances of others, and so on. To see the world as containing such things is to share this much of our conceptual scheme.”

Despite this definition, this essay is largely about Foucauldian conceptual schemes. It also notes Davidson’s earlier (critical) definitions of the notion.

More broadly, it can be argued that the belief in (or acceptance of) the very idea of a conceptual scheme (or at least the strong political and sociological stress on such a thing) led to a belief in linguistic relativity (or the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis). Indeed, it also — at least partly — led to various varieties of moral and political relativism generally. (Note, again, Davidson’s idea that conceptual schemes are “points of view from which individuals, cultures, or periods survey the passing scene”.)

All that said, conceptual schemes can either be seen as vague abstract entities, or, indeed, as real concrete entities.

This means that some of the conceptual schemes referred to in the following don’t strictly abide by any of Davidson’s own definitions and analyses. However, that doesn’t matter because his broad account will still give readers a way (or means) to discuss whether the entities provisionally deemed to be conceptual schemes — i.e., by other people — really do have such a determining and powerful impact on the minds of all those people who’re supposed to be under their spell. (Hence, the rhetorical use of the word “sheeple” in the title.)

It will now be seen that an episteme (at least as described by Michel Foucault) has various similarities with the notion of a conceptual scheme.

Michel Foucault on Epistemes

Michel Foucault

The French philosopher Michel Foucault (1927–1984) used the term épistémè in his book The Order of Things. He defined the word in the following way:

[T]he historical a priori which i[n] a given period, delimits the totality of experience [of] a field of knowledge, defined the mode of being of the objects that appear in that field, provides man’s everyday perception with theoretical powers, and defines the conditions in which he can sustain a discourse about things that [are] recognised to be true.”

And elsewhere in the same book, Foucault also wrote:

“In any given culture and at any given moment, there is always only one episteme that defines the conditions of possibility of all knowledge, whether expressed in a theory or silently invested in a practice.”

It seems clear that Foucault had a view of epistemes which made them deterministic in nature. (He did qualify, in various places, this charge of conceptual and cognitive — hence also political — determinism.) That is, Foucault believed that (most? all?) people don’t consciously adopt their epistemes. What’s more, they don’t realise (or know) that their epistemes determine their experiences, “discourse”, beliefs and even behaviour. Thus, according to Foucault, epistemes are (among other things) “the historical a priori. That means that (if this term is taken in its almost Kantian sense) each episteme literally comes before experience (at least for a particular historical or social group) and therefore it forms and shapes all experience.

Kant was just mentioned in parenthesis a moment ago. Foucault himself used the phrase “historical a priori” (as already quoted) in homage to the 18th century German philosopher.

So let’s take Kant’s arguments for his own (as it were) conceptual scheme as true, at the same time as noting that it’s very different to a Foucauldian episteme.

It can be said that literally no one can escape from Kant’s mental and/or cognitive a priori categories and concepts. Indeed, in the language of 21st century neuroscience and cognitive science, that’s because whatever it is that’s responsible for our Kantian categories and concepts, it must be physically hardwired — i.e., from birth — into the brains of all human beings.

Thus, in the Kantian story, we must see objects as objects. We must see things in terms of cause and effect. And we must see things in terms of internal time and external space. Etc.

Thus, in a strict sense, some of the examples offered below can’t be a priori in this strict Kantian sense. (This is true, for example, of class consciousness.) The closest which some conceptual schemes (if that’s a suitable term at all) come to the Kantian a priori include Chomsky’s universal grammar, the deep structures of Lacan and Lévi-Strauss, Freud’s subconscious, etc. However, even deep structures were seen to be limited to specific cultures at specific times. (There were also, admittedly, deemed to be “universal” and “timeless” threads to such structures.) And each Freudian subconscious is specific to each individual person. (Here again, there are said to be universal and timeless threads to the human subconscious.)

To return to Foucault.

A Foucauldian episteme is far more broad (as well sociological, political and historical) than Kantian a priori concepts and categories. Indeed, Kant’s categories and concepts (if taken to be real things) apply to all human beings at all times (i.e., they can’t constitute Foucault’s historical a priori). That said, some of Foucault’s statements about epistemes do have Kantian resonances.

For example, according to Foucault, an episteme defines “the mode [] of the objects that appear”. It also “determines the totality of experience”. And so on. However, Foucault appeared to have overstepped the Kantian mark when he argued that an episteme determines certain epistemic constraints on our “discourse about truth”.

[Note here that the Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget argued — see here — that Foucault’s use of the term épistémè was similar to Thomas Kuhn’s notion of a paradigm. Perhaps, too, R.G. Collingwood’s notion of historical “absolute presuppositions” chimes in with Foucault’s historical take on epistemes.]

So what about Foucault’s very own escape from what he called the “contemporary episteme”?

How Did Foucault Escape From His Episteme?

“The [flock] of independent minds.” In that link, Noam Chomsky quotes this line (i.e., it’s not his own). Of course, it’s also a perfect description of many of Chomsky’s own followers. That is, Chomsky has a very independent mind. However, many of his followers most certainly do not. And perhaps that’s primarily because they are just that — his (loyal) followers. All this was also true of Foucault and many of his followers. Interestingly, Foucault and Chomsky both debated and clashed on various occasions (see here).

In 1971, Michel Foucault wrote the following:

[] I am trying to grasp the implicit systems which determine our most familiar behaviour without our know it [] to show the constraints they impose upon us. I am therefore trying to place myself at a distance from them and to show how one could escape.”

Note also here the Marxist’s escape from false consciousness or Karl Marx’s own escape from the “bourgeois ideology” of both his own family and his overall background. (Interestingly, Foucault once wrote the following: “Marxism exists in nineteenth-century thought like a fish in water: that is, it is unable to breathe anywhere else.”)

In any case, perhaps some people don’t actually want to escape (or transcend) their conceptual scheme or episteme. That may be because they might have reflected on the concepts, beliefs, norms, etc. of their conceptual scheme, and not found them wanting. However, Foucault seemed to have assumed that because people were (as it were) happy with their episteme (or conceptual scheme), then they mustn’t in fact have recognised that they’re living, working and thinking within one.

So how did Foucault himself escape from his own episteme?

Perhaps this isn’t a philosophical question. Perhaps it’s a question about Foucault himself. That is, this may not be about how Foucault philosophically and/or intellectually transcended his own episteme (note the quote earlier). Instead, it may about why he believed he had done so.

In the past there have been many people with such special powers. Such people argued there were no alternative ways of escape other than their own. What’s more, if someone believed that he has escaped via another route, then he or she mustn’t have really escaped at all. Indeed, it wouldn’t be a genuine episteme (or the subconscious, or class consciousness) otherwise. Thus, it’s no use stressing conceptual schemes or epistemes if people can escape from them willy-nilly.

All this, of course, raises a self-referential question. Namely:

How did such philosophers and theorists (such as Foucault, Marx, Freud, etc.) themselves escape from their conceptual schemes or epistemes?

Did they do so by choosing the true path of escape?

This means that if the rest of us don’t choose the true path (specified by Foucault or, say, Marxists), then we can’t (by definition) have escaped.

That said, perhaps some of these philosophers and theorists happily acknowledged that at least a small number of people can be conscious of their own conceptual scheme. However, unless they’re conscious of it in the true way, then they can’t (really) escape (or transcend) it at all.

This means that it’s not enough to have knowledge, insight and intelligence about our own conceptual scheme: we must have true (i.e., Foucauldian or Marxist) knowledge, insight and intelligence about it. On the other hand, even if a follower of Foucault (or Marx) were an intellectual imbecile and had only being a loyal reader of Foucault’s (Marx’s) works for one single month, then he could still escape his conceptual scheme simply by fully embracing Foucault’s (or Marx’s) analyses, ideas and theories. (Personally, I experienced such a thing many times in my late teens and early twenties.)

As with this essay itself, the American philosopher Hilary Putnam (1926–2016) came at the issue of a conceptual scheme from an angle very different to both Donald Davidson and Michel Foucault.

Hilary Putnam on Conceptual Schemes

Hilary Putnam

Hilary Putnam argued that the very fact of recognising (let alone criticising or rejecting) a conceptual scheme surely means that it has, at least to some extent, been (to use Putnam’s word) “transcended”.

In more detail.

According to Putnam (in his paper ‘Why Reason Can’t Be Naturalised’), the fact that persons can criticise a (or their own) conceptual scheme casts doubt on any notion of such an (abstract) self-contained and self-enclosed structure.

Putnam himself mentioned Michel Foucault. [See also Putnam’s ‘Beyond Historicism’ in his Philosophical Papers.]

According to Putnam, Foucault and other conceptual-scheme determinists (words Putnam didn’t use) claim that we “mechanically apply cultural norms”. In actual fact, however, Putnam argued that many people “interpret” and “criticise” them. (Well, Foucault himself certainly did.)

Putnam’s critique of such determinism — he referred specifically to rationality — can be expressed in this way:

a conceptual scheme
 ↓
determines
 ↓
rationality
 ↓
and rationality
 ↓
transcends (through criticism, self-reflection, etc.)
 ↓
that conceptual scheme

Putnam’s internal realism can also be applied to the notion of a conceptual scheme — and the parallel stress on language — in the following way:

position A (which Putnam says is “language-determined”)
 ↓
gives rises to
 ↓
position B (which is also
language determined)
 ↓
Thus, “we make new versions [of language] out of old ones”.

However, one might have asked Putnam this question:

If a conceptual scheme — or a given language — is so easy to transcend, then why talk in terms of a conceptual scheme at all?

(This seemed to have been at least part of the gist of Davidson’s argument.)

It can be doubted that Putnam did argue that it’s easy to transcend a conceptual scheme. It may take a lot of hard work. Alternatively, such transcendence may be — at least partly — fortuitous.

The point is, however, that not all the conceptual schemes (or epistemes) are equivalent to, say, the a priori categories and concepts of Kant (or, say, to Chomsky’s language faculty). In non-Kantian terms, then, conceptual schemes can be — or actually are — contingent. Indeed, Foucault himself argued that epistemes are contingent in that they might have been otherwise. However, once an episteme becomes a (as it were) reality, then it non-contingently determines experience, “discourse”, and knowledge.

(Remember here that Foucault argued the following three things: (1) “In any given culture and at any given moment, there is always only one episteme.” (2) That an episteme determines the “conditions of possibility of all knowledge”. (3) That a conceptual scheme “delimits the totality of experience [of] a field of knowledge”.)

Of course, there are lots of contingent psychological, social and political phenomena which are, nonetheless, long-lasting and very hard to escape. However, this doesn’t make them any less contingent.

On the other hand , many things which were once deemed to be necessary or a priori turned out to be no such thing at all. And, of course, some philosophers have questioned the very existence of any form of a priori or necessity.

Thus, Foucault’s own notion of a historical a priori must itself become — and indeed has become — a victim of history and of philosophical criticism.

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