Wednesday, 24 May 2023

When Science Journalist John Horgan Met the Anarchist Philosopher of Science Paul Feyerabend

Way back in 1992, the science journalist John Horgan (who writes for Scientific American) interviewed the anarchist philosopher of science Paul Feyerabend. (A full account of this interview can be found in Horgan’s 1996 book, The End of Science.) In that interview, Feyerabend asked Horgan, “What’s so great about knowledge?” He also stated: “‘Truth’ is a rhetorical term.” Horgan himself argued that Feyerabend “objected to scientific certainty for moral and political, rather than epistemological, reasons”.

Paul Feyerabend (top) and John Horgan.

(i) Introduction
(ii) How to Take Feyerabend’s Words
(iii) Feyerabend on the Scientific Method
(iv) Was Feyerabend Against Truth and Knowledge?
(v) Science and its Political Uses and Applications
(vi) A Note on Feyerabend’s Technical Papers

There are various stories floating around the place about the Austrian philosopher of science Paul Karl Feyerabend (1924–1994). The most popular one was mentioned by the science journalist John Horgan (1953-), who informed his readers that Feyerabend “likened science to voodoo, witchcraft, and astrology”. [See many other references to Feyerabend on voodoo, etc. here.]

In broad and very simple terms (as well as to indulge in Feyerabendian rhetoric), Paul Feyerabend was against truth, knowledge and what people deem to be right… Or, at the very least, he took a political — and perhaps also moral — stance against the people who use these words.

In terms of the word “truth”, Feyerabend believed that it is used in a “rhetorical” way by those people who want to grandstand. As for the thing (rather than the word) knowledge, Feyerabend asked Horgan this question, “What’s so great about knowledge?” Finally, when asked (by John Horgan) if creationism should be taught alongside the theory of evolution in schools, Feyerabend replied, “I think that ‘right’ business is a tricky business.

Feyerabend’s position on creationism didn’t seem to have much to do with free speech in American schools or diversity of opinion. It was more a way of expressing his position against science. What’s more, it also seems that, just like Steven Jay Gould, Feyerabend had developed a soft spot for religion in his old age… and perhaps before that too. [See my ‘Stephen Jay Gould on Science and Religion: The Politics of Non-Overlapping Magisteria’.] Of course, Feyerabend did tell John Horgan that when he was young he was a “vigorous atheist”. Thus, Feyerabend followed a rather predictable pattern. However, in this interview, he also said that “God is emanations”. He added that he was “not sure [if he was] religious”. Then Feyerabend also stated a theological and cosmological position:

“It can’t be that the universe — Boom! — you know, and develops. It just doesn’t make any sense.”

Now can all this be connected to Feyerabend’s defence of creationism being taught in American schools? It’s hard to say. As it is, John Horgan himself didn’t make this connection in his book.

How to Take Feyerabend’s Words

There are, of course, problems with how to read Feyerabend’s words — especially those statements which can be found outside his technical papers and books. That said, even the titles of his books — such as Against Method (1975) and Farewell to Reason (1987) — seem to have been designed to shock and titillate.

So how should readers take Feyerabend’s words?

As what John Horgan called “Dadaesque rhetoric”? As exhibitionistic contrarianism? As fake scepticism? As being motived entirely by anarchist politics?… Probably, all these descriptions are at least partially correct.

Added to Feyerabend’s rhetoric was the problem that when he was asked to defend his more outrageous statements, he often simply indulged in yet more rhetoric, played word games, or even got bored by the questions. Thus, in these instances at least (i.e., not when it came to his early technical work), Feyerabend was hermetically sealing himself from all criticism with his rhetoric and gameplaying. All that said, he was also honest at times, as when he admitted to Horgan that “[o]f course I go to extremes”, and then explained why he did so.

Some readers may also wonder how Feyerabend’s anarchist politics and rhetoric were influenced by his (to put it bluntly) Nazi upbringing and childhood. That is, did he come to feel guilty about his Nazi past?

After all, anarchistic contrarianism is the exact opposite of Nazism… isn’t it?

Feyerabend’s Nazi past?

Feyerabend’s parents were committed Nazis. Feyerabend himself was in the Hitler Youth (although this was compulsory for most young Austrians), and, later, he served as an officer on the Eastern Front. Indeed, Feyerabend was decorated with the Iron Cross, and he also became a lieutenant.

Of course, many Austrians were Nazis from 1938 to 1945 — so it’s unwise to indulge in smug presentism. However, it is Feyerabend’s retrospective words about this period in his life which are odd and surprising.

For example, Feyerabend stated that he wasn’t concerned with the Anschluss or with World War II, except in the sense that both got in the way of his studies. (They were — to use his own word — “inconveniences”.) Feyerabend also admitted (in his autobiography Killing Time) that, even at a young age (i.e., when a member of Hitler Youth and later) he’d developed a penchant for “contrariness”… although not, apparently, against Nazism.

So, sure, Feyerabend was always a contradictory character. Or as the philosopher of science Ian Hacking put it: “He was fun.”

Now take just one example of Feyerabend’s contradictory character and views.

Is it contradictory that a self-described “epistemological anarchist” spent so much time as an academic who taught at various elite universities? (You can bet that Feyerabend’s fans — as well as some fellow anarchists — would say that there’s no contradiction here at all.) In fact, Feyerabend was a professor for 35 years. (Feyerabend retired in 1992.) However, perhaps he taught his anarchism — if sometimes obliquely — when he taught his philosophy of science.

Alternatively, perhaps an epistemological anarchist (rather than a political anarchist) simply (as it were) practices his anarchism in a university setting, as well as in his papers and books. (Feyerabend did arrange for various leftleaning political activists — not only anarchists — to speak at the universities he taught at, as he stated in his autobiography.)

In any case, John Horgan himself picked up on the various contradictions in both Feyerabend’s actions and in his words (as will be shown). Yet, I suppose, the usual riposte here will be: “We’re all contradictory creatures!”

Feyerabend on the Scientific Method

There’s much to agree on when it comes to Paul Feyerabend’s philosophy of science.

For example, there are indeed reasons to be “against method”, at least when that rhetorical phrase is qualified.

In detail. It’s very easy to find talk of “the scientific method” as being odd and even downright false. More clearly, it’s the use of the definite article “the” that’s jarring.

Specifically, one can agree with Feyerabend when he said the following:

“You need a toolbox full of different kinds of tools. Not only a hammer and pins and nothing else.”

It can be assumed, perhaps ironically, that many scientists would actually agree with Feyerabend on this. Indeed, talk of “the scientific method” seems like a typical example of philosophers foisting their views (or least attempting to do so) on what science is on both scientists themselves and on the general public.

[John Horgan had noted the normative — or even stipulative — nature of Karl Popper’s philosophy of science in a proceeding section of his book. That section is called ‘Karl Popper finally answers the question: Is falsifiability falsifiable?’.]

The problem here is that from the argument that there’s no single scientific method, Feyerabend concluded that “anything goes”.

Now that simply doesn’t follow.

So was this yet another rhetorical and exhibitionistic phrase from Feyerabend?

If Feyerabend had simply — and only — meant that there are many tools in science’s toolbox, then that’s (obviously) true. However, Feyerabend went much further than that. Indeed, he went further in an almost exclusively political direction.

For example, does it follow from the fact that because there is no (as it were) Platonic Scientific Method, that science isn’t (to use Horgan’s words) “superior to other modes of knowledge”? And does it also follow from this that science only (to use Feyerabend’s words) “provides [] stories” on a par with those of historical “mythmakers”?

Was Feyerabend Against Truth and Knowledge?

There are good reasons to ask if Feyerabend was an early example of a poststructuralist or postmodernist player of games (say, in the manner of Jean Baudrillard or Jacques Derrida).

Take John Horgan’s words:

“His talent for advancing absurd positions through sheer cleverness led to a growing suspicion that rhetoric rather than truth is crucial for carrying an argument. ‘Truth itself is a rhetorical term,’ Feyerabend asserted. Jutting out his chin he intoned, ‘I am searching for the truth.’ Oh boy, what a great person.’”

Would Feyerabend have said (or simply believed) that his statement “Truth’ itself is a rhetorical term” is true? Or is it simply and purely a rhetorical statement? However, if it’s neither of these, then what, exactly, is it?

Similarly, was Feyerabend (just like Socrates’s I know that I know nothing”) trying to show what “a great person” he was by being so deeply committed to truth that he would even dare to question it, and then say that the word truth itself is a “rhetorical term”?

Of course, Feyerabend may have been partially right.

Some people do indeed used the word “truth” rhetorically, just as many people use the word “scientism”, “materialism” and “reductionism” rhetorically.

So was Feyerabend’s statement about the word “truth” at all philosophical?

What’s more, not all people do use the word “truth” in that way.

Actually, how did Feyerabend know who did — and who didn’t — use the word “truth” rhetorically?… Unless, that is, he believed that everybody did!

So this is where we see the problem with Feyerabend’s rhetoric and crude generalisations.

Now what about Feyerabend on knowledge?

In this interview with John Horgan, Feyerabend also indulged in some positive (Jean-Jacques Rousseau-like) Orientalism in relation to knowledge. Horgan wrote:

“Feyerabend noted that many non-industrialized people had done fine without science. The !Kung bushmen in Africa ‘survive in surroundings where any Western person would come in and die after a few days’, he said.”

Sure… and many non-industrialized people have starved to death on mass (i.e., in pre-colonial times), died of terrible diseases, waged continuous war with their neighbours, committed genocide, indulged in mass ritual sacrifice, etc.

In response to John Horgan’s statement about ignorance, Feyerabend replied:

“‘What’s so great about knowledge. They are good to each other. They don’t beat each other down.’”

So did Feyerabend have knowledge that the !Kung bushmen were “good to each other”, and that they didn’t “beat each other down”? Or did he simply believe or even feel this? What’s more, was his belief or feeling (i.e., if it wasn’t knowledge) simply a useful weapon of his anarchist politics?

Horgan picked up on this too. He wrote:

“Wasn’t there something contradictory about the way he used all the techniques of Western rationalism to attack Western rationalism?”

According to Horgan, Feyerabend “refused to take the bait”. Instead, Feyerabend replied by saying,

“‘Well, they are just tools, and tools can be used in any way you see fit.’”

What on earth does that mean?

Perhaps it doesn’t really mean anything.

However, even if it does mean something, then it still doesn’t get rid of the contradiction which Horgan noted. Thus, perhaps that explains why Feyerabend “seemed bored [and] distracted” by Horgan’s questions.

So where do Feyerabend’s points about the !Kung bushmen take us?

Are they entirely political?

Moreover, would anyone even deny that “non-industrialised people” have indeed survived without cars, electricity, the Internet, a National Health Service, modern medicine, democracy, reading Feyerabend’s Against Method, etc.

Science and its Political Uses and Applications

Above it has already been argued — as well as hinted at — that politics was in the driving seat when it came to Feyerabend’s philosophy of science.

John Horgan seems to have taken this position too when he wrote that Feyerabend

“objected to scientific certainty for moral and political, rather than epistemological, reasons”.

In more detail, Feyerabend

“attacked science because he recognised — and was horrified by — its power, its potential to stamp out the diversity of human thought and culture”.

To sum this situation up.

It can be argued that Feyerabend used his “epistemological reasons” against science as weapons to legitimise his political positions against science. In other words, the technical stuff (which readers can find in Feyerabend’s early academic papers) was but a means to a political end.

However, despite Feyerabend using philosophical analysis to give some technical and academic meat to his political problems with science, he still had a point. Or, more accurately, he had a point about the political uses and technological applications of science.

That said, all this seems to be a clear — and very common — conflation of science with the political uses and technological applications of science. Unless, that is, Feyerabend believed that his (to use the word loosely) deconstructions of science itself (if with tools from Anglo-American analytic philosophy) were the best way to do the political job he had in mind. In other words, perhaps Feyerabend believed that it would be much harder to politically misuse and misapply science if science itself (or at least the scientific method) had already been thoroughly deconstructed, if not outrightly (though only intellectually) destroyed.

As already mentioned, Horgan stated that Feyerabend “objected to scientific certainty”.

Yet if the notion of scientific certainty can be objected to for political reasons, then so too can actual scientific theories, scientific data, scientific research projects, etc…

Indeed, they have been!

Thus, if politics is in the driving seat when it comes to the various “critiques” of science, then (to Feyerabend’s words again) “anything goes” if the (righteous) political project, cause or goal demands it. (Of course, anything does go in many areas of politics outside this limited debate about Feyerabend’s philosophy of science.)

So think here of the politicisation of science by the Nazis, the Soviet communists, the Radical Science Movement, etc. Think also of the endless and obvious politics (from all sides!) surrounding “climate science”.

Of course, it must now be acknowledged that many poststructuralist, postmodernist, Marxist, etc. theorists have rejected — and even laughed at — any attempt to argue that there’s a genuine distinction to be made between science itself and its political uses and its technological applications.

More relevantly, then, it’s clear that Feyerabend had a political problem not only with the political uses and applications of science, but also with science itself.

Yet Feyerabend wasn’t averse to many of the applications of science.

John Horgan noted that Feyerabend consulted a doctor when he developed a brain tumour. Feyerabend also lived in a (as Horgan put it) “luxurious Fifth Avenue apartment”, drove a car, earned much more money than the average American, etc. (At the University of Berlin, Feyerabend had two secretaries, fourteen assistants, and an office with an anteroom and antique furniture.)

Still, it can be supposed that someone can hold a strong and principled position against science, and not do a thing about it (i.e., in practice or in his daily life). Perhaps Feyerabend believed that it was enough that he made these political — and rhetorical — statements. Indeed, perhaps Feyerabend believed that it’s up to his followers — or simply those people who believe similar things — to put his anarchist philosophy of science into practice (i.e., outside academic papers and books).

A Note on Feyerabend’s Technical Papers

Feyerabend's technical papers, and how they differ from his rhetorical books and statements, were mentioned earlier in this essay. However, it now needs to be said that even though his technical papers were written in a different prose style, they still cover many of the same philosophical — and sometimes political — issues.

Take the single example of his paper ‘Explanation, Reduction, and Empiricism’, published in 1962. (This was published in the same year as Thomas Kuhn’s The Structure of Scientific Revolutions.)

I personally discovered this paper in the anthology Philosophy of Science: Contemporary Readings. Out of the many papers included in this anthology, Feyerabend’s own is almost the most technical of all. It’s also one of hardest to read. (It’s a perfect display of academese.) Yet, as already stated, it covers many issues which Feyerabend expressed in much more political and rhetorical ways elsewhere.

In detail.

Feyerabend’s paper is (rather obviously) about “reduction”. (Feyerabend had a serious problem with what he took to be Western reductionism.) This paper also argues against “meaning invariance” and in favour of (Kuhnian?) incommensurability. Feyerabend also stressed the underdetermination of theory by the data, the theory-laden nature of our “perceptions”, and he also argued against what he called “the objective”. More tellingly, Feyerabend even focussed on Aristotle’s philosophy of motion, which was exactly what Thomas Kuhn had done before him (i.e., since 1947).

Of course, many of the ideas found in both Feyerabend's paper, as well as in Kuhn’s work, strongly influenced the mainly political and sociological interpretations (at various later dates) of science which came from various Marxist, postmodernist and poststructuralist theorists. (Remember that Kuhn’s “epiphany” was in 1947, and Feyerabend’s paper was published in 1962.) However, it can be argued — in Feyerabend’s case at least — that these philosophical ideas were actually political from the very beginning. That is, the politics was there even when expressed in the dry analytic prose of Feyerabend’s ‘Explanation, Reduction, and Empiricism’.

The editor of Philosophy of Science: Contemporary Readings, Alex Rosenberg, seems to (at least partially) agree with me on this. He introduced Feyerabend’s paper with the following words:

“Although his earlier (and nowadays largely neglected) works can be viewed as preparing the ground for this attack [i.e., on the very idea that science has a distinctive methodology], they are more moderate and still valuable.”

So are these earlier works by Feyerabend “more moderate” simply because they’re academic papers written for academic journals? In other words, isn’t there a danger here of conflating a certain academic prose style with moderation? After all, isn’t it the case that very many immoderate views have been expressed in a dry academic style?

********************************************

Note:

(1) Since John Horgan writes for Scientific American, it’s worth reading its articles ‘Yes, Science Is Political’ and ‘Science Has Always Been Inseparable from Politics’.

Scientific American took its own overtly political turn when its new editor-in-chief, Laura Helmuth, took over in April 2020. This isn’t to say that there weren’t isolated political articles before that. However, since 2020, entire editions of Scientific American have been explicitly political.

The obvious point to make here is that if any other scientific journal “got” anti-Woke, rightwing, Nazi, conservative, “neoliberal”, libertarian, etc., then those activists (who happen to have degrees in scientific journalism) who want to make Scientific American much more (as the phrase has it) politically committed would be outraged. That said, my bet is that these activists would simply say that these other journals are already political.

Of course, all this is like declaring that science is politics by other means, and that each (as it were) side is simply vying for “hegemony”.

[See Jerry Coyne’s own ‘Scientific American dedicates itself to politics, not science’ and ‘Michael Shermer: How Scientific American Got Woke’.]

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Sunday, 14 May 2023

Is There a Hard Problem of Consciousness… and of Everything Else?

Philosopher Dr. Kane Baker argues that there are hard problems of liquidity, white walls, balls, and, indeed, “everything”. He cites three examples: (1) There’s a logical possibility that “you have the same H₂O microstructure, but you just don’t have liquidity”. (2) You can look at a white wall, and yet it doesn’t “manifest as an experience of whiteness”. (3) It’s even logically possible that a “second billiard ball”, after being hit by another billiard ball, “explodes, or suddenly shrinks and disappears”.

Dr. Kane Baker (left) and David Chalmers.

(i) Introduction
(ii) Philosophical Why-Questions
(iii) The Hard Problem of Consciousness
(iv) The Hard Problem of Liquidity
(v) The Hard Problem of White Walls
(vi) The Hard Problem of Balls

This essay is a commentary on Dr. Kane Baker’s YouTube presentation ‘The Hard Problem of Everything’. (On YouTube, Baker is known as Kane B.) I copied his spoken words from the YouTube ‘Show transcript’ function. Thus, I needed to edit his words a little in order to make them more readable. However, I didn’t change any of Baker’s philosophical content.

[The words “the hard problem of consciousness” were coined by the philosopher David Chalmers.]

Philosophical Why-Questions

Dr. Kane Baker offers his YouTube viewers a broad take on what can be called (using a hyphen) why-questions. He says:

“In general, when it comes to giving explanations, the why-questions can be extended indefinitely. [] You know the thing that sometimes kids do where they just ask why why why. They just endlessly ask why.”

Baker continues:

“That might be annoying, but of course you can do that, and it’s not really clear that there’s anything rationally illegitimate about doing that. [] Why not just ask why again and again?”

So are all these why-questions always (or only) annoying?

What needs to be said here is that many of those people who question these questions may not actually find them “annoying” at all. That is, philosophical why-questions aren’t always questioned because the critics are annoyed by them, or because they’re too lazy, philistine, materialistic, or scientistic to answer them. Instead, they may question why-questions for very good philosophical and/or scientific reasons.

In Kane Baker’s case, one solution to endless why-questions is to posit brute facts. (This will be discussed later.)

In Baker’s own words:

“So why-questions can can continue indefinitely, and then it seems like there’s really only going to be three ways to stop them. One option is to say, ‘Well, there actually just is no explanation. It’s a brute fact.’ [] So we’re just at the level of brute fact. [] It seems like eventually we just get to a point where you know we end up with a brute fact.”

There are, of course, other options other than positing brute facts. According to Kane, one option is simply to say, “I don’t know.”

[See the note (1) on Gordan Park Baker’s position on philosophical why-questions.]

Of course, the ultimate hard question is the one about consciousness.

The Hard Problem of Consciousness

So, firstly, Kane Baker sets the scene in the following way:

“Let’s say we have a theory [that] whenever you have a conscious state, that’s correlated with certain neural state. [] Whenever you have an experience of redness, that’s correlated with certain specific neural states of the brain.”

Baker then repeats a story by asking various familiar hard questions about these corelations:

“You can ask why do those correlations hold? That’s basically the hard problem of consciousness. It seems you could have those physical states without the experiential state. [] What we haven’t explained is why those correlations or connections to consciousness hold.”

What can we conclude from all this?

Baker states the following:

“The normal explanatory methods that we have in science are just not going to answer this.”

He continues:

“The thought is that even if we had a complete description of the physical states of the brain (the physical neural processes going on in the brain), we still wouldn’t really have an understanding of consciousness because we could we would still face this question of why is it that these neural states are the ones that realise consciousness.”

… But Baker then adds something extra, as well as something radical!

He tells us that

“but then I kind of feel that’s the case with everything”.

Baker’s first example (i.e., from the long list of “everything”) is the “underlying microstructure of water” and why it “manifests itself as liquidity”.

The Hard Problem of Liquidity

Kane Baker says:

“I don’t see anything logically incoherent here. Imagine a world where you have that microstructure, but you just don’t have liquidity — you have solidity or just something else. I think that this kind of why question is still there. Why does this correlation hold?”

[You do “have solidity” — or ice — under particular ambient conditions. However, that doesn’t really impact on Baker’s philosophical point.]

Baker is comparing (in a strong way) H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity to the physical brain (or, perhaps, other physical things) and its relation to a conscious state.

Thus, Kane asks the following two hard questions about liquidity:

“Why does water have this property of liquidity? How do we explain the property of liquidity?”

Baker says that the obvious (scientific) answer to this hard question is that “we break [water] down into H₂O molecules” and then analyse their collective microstructure. However, that example of scientific analysis — or even reduction! — still doesn’t answer the hard question.

In Baker’s own words:

“Why is it the case that the H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity?”

Baker then mentions David Hume’s position on causation (see here) and connects it to the relation between H₂O molecules and liquidity. He says:

“Hume and lots of people have suggested that there are no conceptual connections between causes and effects.”

… Hang on a minute!

This comparison doesn’t seem to work in the case of liquidity.

This is because the relation of H₂O molecules to liquidity simply isn’t a question of cause and effect. The liquidity is always simply (as it were) there in the molecular microstructure of H₂O molecules.

[All this is to assume that certain ambient external physical conditions obtain. However, if they don’t, then H₂O molecules can, in particular cases, instantiate solidity, not liquidity.]

More clearly, cause and effect is (usually?) seen as being a temporal matter. That is, the cause proceeds — in time — the effect. However, when it comes to H₂O molecules and liquidity, you don’t firstly get an instantiation of a sufficient number of H₂O molecules, followed (in time) by liquidity. Instead, when you have a sufficient number of H₂O molecules existing under certain ambient conditions, then, at one and the same time, you also have liquidity.

What’s more, the Humean (psychological) point that the

“reason why we expect the second ball to start rolling in a particular direction is because that is what we have actually observed — at least in similar scenarios”

simply doesn’t apply to the microstructural properties of H₂O molecules and liquidity either. This is because we don’t expect liquidity “because that is what we have actually observed — at least in similar scenarios”.

The physical, chemical and structural facts about H₂O and liquidity aren’t really about what we expect (i.e., as in effects following causes) or even solely about our observations. The H₂O-liquidity story was largely theoretical and experimental in nature. So surely it was never the case that chemists frequently observed the microstructure of a set of H₂O molecules being followed by liquidity. As already stated, that’s because this isn’t a temporal or Humean phenomenon.

So this isn’t about our psychological habits either. [See Hume and ‘Principles of association’.]

Thus, the question as to why H₂O molecules “manifest as liquidity?” (or as ice) seems to be bogus. Again, this is because the structural and physical properties of H₂O molecules — among many other things posited by physics and chemistry — simply are (or they constitute) liquidity (i.e., under certain ambient conditions).

Thus, asking why H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity is almost the same as asking why the Morning Star manifests itself as the Evening Star or why Eric Blair manifested himself as George Orwell. More fundamentally, then, it’s not far from asking why x manifests as x.

To sum up.

H₂O molecules don’t manifest liquidity — at least not in Baker’s Humean sense. A set of H₂O molecules — under certain ambient conditions — simply have the property of liquidity.

However, a set of H₂O molecules isn’t one and the same thing as all human (sensory and psychological) experiences of liquidity. So perhaps this is what Baker is getting at.

All that said, it may well be the case that Baker isn’t using the word “manifest” in such a causal way!

After all, the word “manifest” isn’t necessarily — or automatically — tied to causality or to cause-then-effect reasoning. However, it’s in the nature of these philosophical why-questions that even if we accept that the relation between H₂O molecules and liquidity isn’t temporal or causal, then it can still be asked why H₂O molecules (under particular ambient conditions) have the property of liquidity!

[It needs to be added here — as already hinted at — that H₂O molecules are liquid only if the ambient temperature is somewhere between freezing and boiling, if there is sufficient gravitational attraction to hold the molecules together, etc. However, if all these (as it were) external physical conditions obtain, then the given H₂O molecules are liquid and all the arguments above still hold. Similarly, if freezing ambient conditions obtain, then H₂O molecules are (to use Kane Baker’s word) “solid” — that is, ice.]

In detail. Even though the structural and physical properties of H₂O molecules instantiate liquidity because the latter and the former are one and the same thing, it can still be asked why they do so.

Yet this is like asking the following question:

If we place four matchsticks at right angles to each other, then why do they constitute the shape of a square?

… Sure, but what about consciousness?

Is all the above also true of the physical basis of consciousness and consciousness itself?

Is there a time lag between the instantiation of certain brain states — and all the other internal and external physical things required for consciousness — and the instantiation of a conscious state itself?

An old-style identity theorist would simply say that the physical states are the conscious states. (This doesn’t stop it from being the case that a human subject will have a first-person mode of presentation of those physical states.) So this cause-then-effect reasoning simply wouldn’t work for such a theorist. That said, even if one isn’t an identity theorist, the idea of the sum of the physical states required for a conscious state being followed (in time) by that conscious state still seems wrong.

Brute Facts?

So, again, why is it the case that the H₂O molecules manifest as liquidity?

Here’s Baker’s brute fact option:

“They just do. It’s just a brute fact.”

Yet if you accept this brute fact for H₂O molecules and liquidity, then why not accept it for physical (or brain) states and a conscious state too?

Kane himself continues:

“Of course, you could say the same with consciousness. Why is it the case that these physical states of the brain manifest as consciousness? Well, it’s just a brute fact.”

There’s a problem here.

Whereas many people would accept the brute fact option for H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity, they wouldn’t also accept it for physical states and their relation to consciousness.

In Kane’s own words:

“In the case of water and H₂O molecules, that particular brute fact seems to be intellectually satisfying to people. It seems to scratch the intellectual itch of explanation. In the case of consciousness, that’s not so right.”

So why are these two cases different?

Kane continues:

“When we explain all of the processes going on in the brain, that doesn’t scratch the intellectual itch.”

However, Baker doesn’t seem so see this as being a big deal. This is because he believes that “it seems to be purely a matter of people’s psychology”. That is:

“Some people find the the explanation satisfying. Some people don’t. And that’s it.”

Now to change tack again.

Just as Baker applies what is said about the hard problem of consciousness to the hard problem of liquidity, so now he discusses the hard problem of white walls.

The Hard Problem of White Walls

Firstly, this is a different case to H₂O molecules and their relation to liquidity. The simple reason for that is that in this new scenario Kane Baker is discussing people’s experiences of white walls. That is, unlike the microstructure of H₂O molecules and liquidity, Baker is now discussing what he calls a “phenomenal property”.

Baker says:

“When I look at a wall and I see a particular color, I’m undergoing a certain conscious state. I’m presented with a certain phenomenal property: the whiteness of the wall. There’s something it’s like to see the whiteness of the wall. And you can describe in complete detail all of the processes going on in my head. You can describe the patterns of stimulation on my retina. You can describe the information going down the optic nerve. You can describe all of the brain processes going on.”

But then comes Baker’s clincher:

“But even if you do complete that task, it seems like there’s still this further question of why would any of that stuff manifests as an experience of whiteness.”

In simple terms, then, why does the complete physical and chemical story of walls, white paint, our sensory systems and brains, etc. result in an experience of whiteness?

Moreover, we can now ask the very same questions which we formerly asked about the relation between brain states (or anything physical) and conscious states. That is:

“Why does that correlation hold [i.e., between walls and the experience of white]? Why is there that connection?”

Thus, Kane argues that what is true of consciousness “is true for literally everything else”. In other words, he believes that “there’s a hard problem of everything”. More radically, he concludes by saying that “everything escapes a complete scientific explanation”.

The Hard Problem of Balls

Kane Baker’s next (Humean) point is a little different too.

Rather than imagining effects not necessarily being tied to their causes, this time it’s a question of the effects being different — perhaps very different — to those we usually experience.

[This issue has been done to death in the literature of analytic philosophy, as can be seen when in comes to the debates about inverted qualia, absent qualia, dancing qualia, fading qualia, and suchlike.]

Baker says:

“Hume most famously makes this point that [if you] look at any given cause, you can imagine any effect could occur.”

Baker then provides an example of this:

“So if I imagine one billiard ball rolling along table and connecting with another billiard ball (because we’ve observed this sort of thing has happened many times), we expect that that what will happen is that the second billiard ball will move. But there’s no kind of conceptual or logical necessity to that. It could be the case that the first billiard ball rolls along the table, it touches the second billiard ball, and then the second billiard ball explodes, or the second billiard balls starts spinning, or the second billiard ball suddenly shrinks and disappears. Anything could happen.”

It’s interesting that David Hume (or at least Baker’s Hume) stressed imagination and logical possibility just as René Descartes had famously done before him (see here), and which David Chalmers still does today. That is, this is all a question of conceiving (or imagining) a second billiard ball doing things second balls don’t normally do. Or, in Baker’s own words, “there’s no kind of conceptual or logical necessity” that the second billiard ball behaves in the way second billiard balls usually behave. Thus, we can imagine (or conceive) of the second billiard ball, when hit by the first ball, flying off into a distant galaxy, turning into a chicken, etc. (These a logical possibilities, but not all are natural or metaphysical possibilities.)

So it’s somewhat inevitable that Baker also brings in possible worlds here.

Baker states the following:

“You could say, ‘Well the world I’m describing is not a possible world.’ In this context, that seems to be question begging because [we can ask], ‘Why isn’t it possible?’ ‘Why isn’t that a possible world?’”

Most scientists would never argue that Baker’s scenarios are impossible. Instead, they may ask what work these imaginings and posited possibilities are actually doing.

A second billiard ball exploding, or flying off into another galaxy, etc. may indeed be logically possible (or such things may occur in possible worlds) — but so what!

This repetitive and omnipresent stress (at least in analytic philosophy) on conceivings, conceptual possibilities, and what happens in possible worlds, is all well and good — but where does it all take us?

So perhaps many physicists would ignore (or even laugh at) these conceivings. That’s because there’s nothing to hold philosophical conceivers back when it comes to what they can — and cannot — conceive. In other words, almost anything goes when it comes to these philosophical conceivings (bar logical impossibilities).

In any case, Kane Baker’s general point is that what people say about the hard problem of consciousness can also be said about a second billiard ball, H₂O molecules and liquidity, our experiences of the whiteness of a wall, and, indeed, everything else.

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Note:

(1) As the American-English philosopher Gordon Park Baker (1938–2002, and no relation to Kane Baker) put it:

“The unexamined question is not worth answering.”

Baker added:

“To accept a question as making good sense and embark on building a philosophical theory to answer it is already to make the decisive step in the whole investigation.”

Another problem is summed up by Gordon Baker:

“Questions, just as much as assertions, carry presuppositions.”

Baker’s questions about questions are partly Wittgensteinian in nature. Thus, readers can certainly note his Wittgensteinian points in the following:

[T]o suppose that the answers to philosophical questions await discovery is to presuppose that the questions themselves make sense and stand in need of answers (not already available). Why should this not be a fit subject for philosophical scrutiny?”

Indeed, Wittgenstein did have things to say on the nature of many philosophical questions (both in his “early” and “late” periods). His position is partly summed up in this passage from Robert W. Angelo. (This ends with a quote from Wittgenstein himself.) Thus:

[N]onsense in the form of a question is still nonsense. Which is to say that the question-sign [] can only be rejected, not answered: ‘What is undefined is without meaning; this is a grammatical remark.’ [].”

Another good way of summing up the problem with these philosophical why-questions is also cited by Gordon Baker. He wrote:

“To pose a particular question is to take things for granted, to put some things beyond question or doubt, to treat some things as matters of course.”

One obvious “presupposition” to a question is that there’s an answer to it — or at least a possible answer.

To sum up. Aren’t the askers of these types of philosophical why-questions “taking certain things for granted”? That is, aren’t they taking for granted that their questions are legitimate and that there are answers? Moreover, aren’t these questioners also “put[ting] some things beyond question or doubt”, as well as “treat[ing] some things as matters of course”?

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