Tuesday, 17 November 2020

Is Roger Penrose a Platonist or a Pythagorean?


 

Roger Penrose is not only a mathematical physicist: he’s also a pure mathematician. So it’s not a surprise that Penrose expresses the deep relation between mathematics and the world (or nature) in the following way:

“[T]he more deeply we probe the fundamentals of physical behaviour, the more that it is very precisely controlled by mathematics.”

What’s more:

“[T]he mathematics that we find is not just of a direct calculational nature; it is of a profoundly sophisticated character, where there is subtlety and beauty of a kind that is not to be seen in the mathematics that is relevant to physics at a less fundamental level.”

Penrose is (rather obviously) profoundly aware of the importance of mathematics to (all) physics. Yet, more relevantly to this piece, he’s also aware that maths alone can sometimes (or often) lead the way in physics… and sometimes in a negative manner! So despite the eulogies to mathematics above, Penrose offers us these words of warning:

“In accordance with this, progress towards a deeper physical understanding, if it is not able to be guided in detail by experiment, must rely more and more heavily on an ability to appreciate the physical relevance and depth of the mathematics, and to ‘sniff out’ the appropriate ideas by use of a profoundly sensitive aesthetic mathematical appreciation.”

Platonism and Pythagoreanism in Contemporary Physics

Roger Penrose is a Platonist, not a Pythagorean. (Or at least he’s a Platonist in certain respects — see here, here and my ‘Platonist Roger Penrose Sees Mathematical Truths’ ) One reason why this can be argued is that Penrose admits that he

“might baulk at actually attempting to identify physical reality within the reality of Plato’s world”.

To the Pythagorean, the world literally is mathematical. Or, perhaps more accurately, the world literally is mathematics (i.e., the world is literally constituted by numbers, equations, etc.). That may sound odd. However, if we simply say that “the world is mathematical”, then that may (or does) only mean that the world can be accurately — even if very accurately — described by mathematics. The Pythagorean, however, states such phrases as “things are numbers”. He therefore establishes a literal identity between maths and the world (or parts thereof).

To the Platonist, on the other hand, the mathematical world is abstract and not at all the same as “physical reality”. (Plato often actively encouraged philosophers and mathematicians to turn their eyes — or souls — away from the physical world.) Yet it’s still undoubtedly the case that abstract mathematics — even Platonic mathematics — is a fantastic means to describe the world. Despite that, the Platonic world is still abstract and not identical to the physical world. In other words, there is no identity between the physical world and the Platonic world. However, there is an identity between the physical world and the Pythagorean world.

More generally, even a (at times) hard-headed positivist (see here) like Werner Heisenberg recognised the importance of the Pythagorean tradition in physics. He argued that

“this mode of observing nature, which led in part to a true dominion over natural forces and thus contributes decisively to the development of humanity, in an unforeseen manner vindicated the Pythagorean faith”.

All that may depend on what Heisenberg meant by the word “Pythagorean”. After all, it’s often the case that the word “Pythagorean” is simply used as a literal synonym for the word “Platonic”. Thus having said all the above, such distinctions between Platonism and Pythagoreanism (at least in these specific respects) may be a little vague or even artificial.

This may apply to Roger Penrose’s position too.

Take Penrose’s own (as it were) quasi-Pythagorean reading of the “complex-number system”. He writes:

“Yet we shall find that complex numbers, as much as reals, and perhaps even more so, find a unity with nature that is truly remarkable. It is as though Nature herself is as impressed by the scope and consistency of the complex-number system as we are ourselves, and has entrusted to these numbers the precise operations of her world at its minutest scales.”

Since the passage above is fairly poetic, it’s difficult to grasp exactly how Pythagorean it actually is. More clearly, surely the words

“[i]t is as though Nature herself is as impressed by the scope and consistency of the complex-number system”

are purely poetic — even if there’s a non-poetic “base” that’s expressed by the poeticisms. Penrose does, after all, prefix the statement above with the words “[i]t is as though”. So surely it can be said that Nature doesn’t need (or require) the complex-number system. It is us human beings (or physicists) who need that system in order to describe Nature.

In any case, Penrose’s strongest (possibly Pythagorean) claim is:

The complex numbers “find a unity with nature”.

Now is that “unity” also an identity? Not necessarily. After all, numbers may be united with Nature only in the sense that they can describe it perfectly. Saying that numbers are identical with nature, on the other hand, is something else entirely. As it is, the phrase “unity with nature” is hard to untangle. (Hence my use of the word “poetic” earlier.)

Having put a quasi-Pythagorean position on (at the least) complex numbers, Penrose then puts a (literally) down-to-earth position on the real numbers. Penrose writes:

“Presumably this suspicion arose because people could not ‘see’ the complex numbers as being presented to them in any obvious way by the physical world. In the case of the real numbers, it had seemed that distances, times, and other physical quantities were providing the reality that such numbers required; yet the complex numbers had appeared to be merely invented entities, called forth from the imaginations of mathematicians.”

Despite using the phrase “down-to-earth position” before the quote above, this passage is at least partly Pythagorean in that it states that

“distances, times, and other physical quantities [] provid[ed] the reality” which real numbers “required”.

This can be read as meaning that the real numbers are (as it were… or not) embodied in distances, times and other physical quantities. Yet — historically at least — it seems that complex numbers didn’t pass that Pythagorean test.

Examples: Paul Dirac, Etc.

It’s undoubtedly the case that various well-known (as well as largely unknown) physicists have often been led by mathematics when it comes to their theories. That is, they certainly haven’t always been led by experiments or by observation.

Take the case of Paul Dirac.

Dirac found the equation for the electron (see here). He also predicted the electron’s anti-particle (see here). Both the finding and the prediction came before any experimental evidence whatsoever.

Penrose calls Dirac’s finding of the equation for the electron an “aesthetic leap”. However, Penrose also says that it arose

“from the sound body of mathematical understanding that had arisen from the experimental findings of quantum mechanics”.

That basically means that although Dirac’s mathematics was (as it were again) pure, “the experimental findings of quantum mechanics” must still have been swirling around in Dirac’s head as he carried out his pure mathematics.

The Dirac case also shows us the to and thro between (pure) maths and experimental findings. That is, even if we have aesthetic and/or mathematical leaps, the mathematical physicists concerned were clearly still aware of the experimental findings which proceeded their abstract leaps. What’s more, Dirac’s own leaps were “made with great caution and subsequently confirmed in observation”. Indeed in both Dirac’s cases, confirmation came very quickly.

A purely philosophical slant can be put on the Dirac case. (Although I’m a little wary of shoehorning philosophical terms — or ways of thinking - onto what physicists have done.) As the philosopher James Ladyman (technically) puts it:

“Sophisticated inductivism is not refuted by those episodes in the history of science where a theory was proposed before the data were on hand to test it let alone suggest it... Theories may be produced by any means necessary but then their degree of confirmation is a relationship between them and the evidence and is independent of how they were produced.”

We can now say that in Dirac’s case there was no “data [] on hand to test it let alone suggest it”. Actually, the last clause (“let alone suggest it”) may be a little strong in that previous experiments in (quantum) physics must surely have suggested various things to Dirac. The thing is, Dirac still had no (hard) data to back up his prediction or equation. Despite that, Dirac’s theories were “produced by any means necessary” (or by any mathematical means necessary) and only then were they confirmed.

To get back to Penrose.

Penrose goes into more detail elsewhere when he says that in the cases of Dirac’s equation for the electron, Einstein’s general relativity and “the general framework” of quantum mechanics,

“physical considerations — ultimately observational ones — have provided the overriding criteria for acceptance”.

Opposed to that, Penrose goes on to say that

“[i]n many of the modern ideas for fundamentality advancing our understanding of the laws of the universe, adequate physical criteria — i.e. experimental data, or even the possibility of experimental investigation — are not available”.

Penrose then concludes by saying that

“we may question whether the accessible mathematical desiderata are sufficient to enable us to estimate the chances of success of these ideas”.

All above shows us that Penrose is still acknowledging that (in a basic sense at least) the mathematics comes first. That is, Penrose believes that any “acceptance” of the “ideas” for “our understanding of the laws of nature” often comes after the (pure) mathematics. (That’s if the maths is ever truly pure in that previous experiments, observations, physical theories, etc. will — or may — be swilling around in the mathematical physicist’s head.) To repeat: the mathematical speculation (or theorising) comes first, and only then do physicists expect the “physical considerations” to provide the “overriding criteria for acceptance”.

When it comes to many (or some) “modern ideas” (Penrose mainly has string/M theory in mind — see here), on the other hand, “physical criteria” are “not available”. Yet that was also true — as we’ve seen — of the examples which Penrose himself cites (i.e., quantum mechanics, general relativity and Dirac’s equation for the electron). In these example, physical criteria were not available at the times these ideas were first formulated. This means that the observations, confirmations, experiments, etc. came after — even if very soon after.

So what if the experiments haven’t been done? Which precise experiments must guide the physicist? And what if there are no currently relevant or possible experiments which can guide the theoretical physicist? Of course it can now be argued that if there are no relevant, actual or possible experiments (or observations), then in what sense is any given physicist — even if mathematical physicist — doing physics at all?

String Theory and Penrose’s Twistor Theory

Despite Penrose’s emphasis on the fundamentally important role of maths in physics (which is hardly an original emphasis), Penrose is still highly suspicious of the nature of string theory.

Although Penrose doesn’t always name names, he still stresses “the mathematics that is relevant to physics”. He warns that

“if it is not able to be guided in detail by experiment, [it] must rely more and more heavily on an ability to appreciate the physical relevance and depth of the mathematics, and to ‘sniff out’ the appropriate ideas by use of a profoundly sensitive aesthetic mathematical appreciation”.

This squares with what British science writer and astrophysicist John Gribbin has to say.

Gribbin too talks in terms of what he calls a “physical model” of “mathematical concepts”. He writes (in his Schrodinger’s Kittens and the Search for Reality) that “a strong operational axiom” tells us that

“literally every version of mathematical concepts has a physical model somewhere, and the clever physicist should be advised to deliberately and routinely seek out, as part of his activity, physical models of already discovered mathematical structures”.

Yet even in Gribbin’s case, it’s still clear that a “mathematical concept” comes first and only then is a “physical model” found to square with it.

Penrose’s words on his own twistor theory are also very relevant here in that after criticising string theorists for seemingly divorcing their mathematics from experiment, prediction, observation, etc., he then freely confesses that he’s — at least partly - guilty of exactly the same sin.

Firstly, Penrose tells us about the pure mathematics of twistor theory. He writes:

“Yet twistor theory, like string theory, has had a significant influence on pure mathematics, and this has been regarded as one of its greatest strengths.”

Penrose then cites a couple of very-specific examples:

“Twistor theory has had an important impact on the theory of integrable systems [] on representation theory, and on differential geometry.”

And then we have the mathematical aesthetics of twistor theory:

“Twistor theory has been greatly guided by considerations of mathematical elegance and interest, and its gains much of its strength from its rigorous and fruitful mathematical structure.”

Finally, the confession:

“That is all very well, the candid reader might be inclined to remark with some justification, but did I not complain [] that a weakness of string theory was that it was largely mathematically driven, with too little guidance coming from the nature of the physical world? In some respects this is a valid criticism of twistor theory also. There is certainly no hard reason, coming from modern observational data, to force us into a belief that twistor theory provides the route that modern physics should follow… The main criticism that can be levelled at twistor theory, as of now, is that it is not really a physical theory. It certainly makes no unambiguous physical predictions.”

So how does Penrose extract himself from this problem? Well, to be honest, he doesn’t go into great detail — at least not after these specific passages.

The obvious question to ask now is this:

What is twistor theory doing right that string theory is doing wrong?

Is the answer to that question entirely determined by how close each theory is to “the nature of the physical world”? But don’t we (as it were) get to the physical world only through theory? As Stephen Hawking once put it:

“If what we regards as real depends on our theory, how can we make reality the basis of our philosophy? But we cannot distinguish what is real about the universe without a theory… Beyond that it makes no sense to ask if it corresponds to reality, because we do not know what reality is independent of theory.”

In any case, perhaps it’s the case that (as Penrose may believe) the mathematics of twistor theory is superior to the mathematics of string theory.

String theory particularly has been criticised for not making “unambiguous physical predictions”. Yet here’s Penrose saying exactly the same thing about his own twistor theory.

Finally, there probably never is (to use Penrose’s own words) “a hard reason” to “force” us to believe any physical theory — at least not in the early days of such theories. This obliquely brings on board the largely philosophical idea of the underdetermination of theory by data in that the “modern observational data” which Penrose mentions will never be enough to force the issue of which theory to accept. In other words, whatever observational data there is can be interpreted (or theorised about) in many ways. Alternatively, the same observational data can produce — or be explained by — numerous (often rival) physical theories.



Wednesday, 11 November 2020

What is Water? A Philosophical Inquiry into Natural Kinds


 

The classic case of a natural kind is water. This natural kind throws up many problems. These problems have been debated many times in — mainly analytic — philosophy. One main focus in this debate has been on the differences between water’s “microscopic” (or “microstructural”) properties and its “macroscopic” properties. More specifically, there’s been some kind of philosophical opposition which has been made between the microstructure of water and its “classical” (or macroscopic) properties. Added to that (though related to macroscopic properties) is the emphasis which has been made on our phenomenological (or phenomenal) experiences of water.

Even those who accept that there are natural kinds still acknowledge that some of the things which are taken to be natural kinds today weren’t taken to be so a hundred years ago (or even more recently). Now facts like that alone don’t give one a reason to be sceptical about the reality of natural kinds. Take mathematics as a similar case. Mathematicians (not just Platonists or realists) believe that there are determinate answers (or “solutions”) to mathematical “problems” even if in the past mathematicians have sometimes got the answers wrong or we don’t have the correct answers today. Similarly, even if we make mistakes about natural kinds; surely they must still be real.

But let’s firstly start off with one definition of “natural kinds” from the Internet Encyclopaedia of Philosophy:

“[I]t is commonly assumed that, among the countless possible types of classifications, one group is privileged. Philosophy refers to such categories as natural kinds. Standard examples of such kinds include fundamental physical particles, chemical elements, and biological species… Candidates for natural kinds can include man-made substances, such as synthetic elements, that can be created in a laboratory…. Groupings that are artificial or arbitrary are not natural; they are invented or imposed on nature. Natural kinds, on the other hand, are not invented, and many assume that scientific investigations should discover them.”

I won’t go into great detail about the definition above because much of it isn’t relevant to what will be discussed later. However, it can be said that it’s certainly the case that as a chemical substance, water (or a sample of H₂O molecules) is “privileged” by… well, (at the very least) philosophers. Yet water is privileged precisely because it’s seen — by philosophers — as being the classic natural kind. So that’s a kind of circular situation.

The passage above also says that natural kinds “are not invented” (i.e., unlike “groupings that are artificial or arbitrary”). There’s a problem here too. What a natural-kind term refers to (or is supposed to refer to) may not be invented. However, the natural kind term itself, and all the definitions which “belong” to it, most certainly are invented. (In a strong sense, this is a case of applying an anti-realist position to natural kinds.) And that may account for the problems we encounter in many discussions of natural kinds — that confusion (or conflation) of what natural kind terms refer to and natural-kind terms (along with their definitions) themselves. What natural-kind terms refer to may certainly be real (at least in most cases). Nonetheless, it’s taking them as natural kinds that’s the (philosophical) problem. And that problem lies at the heart of this piece.

Now considering what was said in the Internet Encyclopaedia of Philosophy definition of the term “natural kinds” above, it may seem strange to consider the possibility that what natural kinds are taken to be may be a somewhat contingent or even arbitrary matter. But, of course, many philosophers will now immediately state that if natural kinds are the result of contingent and/or arbitrary decisions (or even if they have a contingent and/or arbitrary nature), then they can’t be natural kinds at all!

All Samples of Water Contain Micro-Organisms

The philosopher George Bealer picks up on the microscopic-macroscopic-properties distinction (mentioned at the beginning) when it comes to water. He cites the classic twin-earth example of the opposition between XYX-as-water and H₂O-as-water

Readers must note here that Bealer’s following “thought experiment” is extremely artificial. However, that often doesn’t matter in philosophy because such cases are chosen to illustrate broader philosophical issues. And, in this instance, that broader philosophical issue is the — possibly? — contingent and/or arbitrary nature of natural kinds.

In his paper ‘Propositions’, Bealer firstly cites the possibility (or actuality) that

“all and only water here on earth is composed entirely of certain micro-organisms”.

Even if the factual claim that all samples of water contain “certain micro-organisms” is false, we can still argue that every sample of water will contain at least some constituents other than H₂O molecules — whether that includes “foreign” ions, dust, tiny bits of plastic, or Bealer’s micro-organisms. Now does that matter when it comes to to the nature of the natural kind water?

(It turns out that “nearly every body of water” here on Earth does contain microorganisms — see here. Despite that, one would intuitively believe that chemists must surely be able to create “pure water”. Yet, as it turns out, even chemists can’t do that — see here.)

Bealer states his broader position thus:

“If, like live coral or caviar, all and only water here on earth is composed entirely of certain micro-organisms, then on a twin earth a stuff which contains no micro-organisms whatsoever but which nevertheless contains the same chemicals as those found in samples of water on earth would not qualify as water.”

The general point here is that what we take water to be may be a contingent and/or even an arbitrary matter. Of course Bealer isn’t arguing that water here on earth isn’t H₂O. Or, more correctly, he isn’t arguing that all samples of water don’t contain mostly H₂O molecules. Bealer is saying that the fact that water contains mostly H₂O molecules is only a part of this (possible) story. In his example, literally all samples of water here on earth also contain micro-organisms. Now if every sample of water does contain micro-organisms, then why aren’t these micro-organisms part of the essence of water? Or, alternatively, why aren’t these micro-organisms constitutive of the natural kind water?

Now if we provisionally accept that all samples of water contains micro-organisms, then if what passes for water on Twin Earth doesn’t contain any micro-organisms, then surely it can’t be water. (At least it can’t be water, according to people on earth.) Yet here there seems to be an obvious distinction which can be made here between water (or H₂O molecules) and what else we may find in water. And that’s still the case even if we always find the same given x (other than H₂O molecules) in water.

For example, simply because all trees have fungi, moulds or lichen on them, that doesn’t mean that we have a joint tree-fungi/etc. natural kind. Similarly, if every sample of gold has microscopic particles of dirt on it, that wouldn’t mean that we have a joint gold-dirt natural kind.

The fact that a distinction can be made between water and what else is found in every sample of water may not matter when it comes to Bealer’s central point. That is, why do we (or why do philosophers) exclude these micro-organisms from the natural kind water if they occur (or exist) in literally every sample of water? Having said that, just as all samples of water contain micro-organisms (at least in this case), so every example of water also contains hydrogen atoms. Yet although each H₂O molecule includes two hydrogen atoms, they’re not actually the same thing. Similarly, why conflate micro-organisms and water simply because the former can be found in all samples of the latter?

Let’s look at this another way.

Even if water (or a collection of H₂O molecules) is diluted with whiskey (to invert things for this example), then it’s still water that’s being diluted. Similarly (as earlier), if every tree has fungi/mould/lichen/etc. growing on it, then that doesn’t mean that trees literally are fungi/mould/lichen/etc; or that taken together trees and fungi/mould/lichen/etc. constitute a joint natural kind.

So a summary of Bealer’s argument can be posed in the form of this question:

What if literally every sample of water contains something that isn’t H₂O?

Well, that depends. In one case, a sample of water may contain x and another sample may contain y. So, yes, it may be the case that every sample of water contains something that’s over and above H₂O molecules. But what if water always contains the same x that’s over and above H₂O molecules? That seems to be Bealer’s argument.

Bealer further stresses the contingent and/or arbitrary nature of natural kinds in his Twin Earth example. He continues:

“[T]hen on a twin earth a stuff which contains no micro-organisms whatsoever but which nevertheless contains the same chemicals as those found in samples of water on earth would NOT qualify as water.”

Now we’re in the absurd (or simply possible) situation in which all the samples of a substance that’s entirely made up of H₂O molecules may not be deemed — by people on earth at least — to be water! Why is that? It’s because these samples don’t contain any micro-organisms. Yet intuitively it would seem that the “water” (note the scare quotes) on Twin Earth has more right to be deemed a natural kind (or simply as water) than water on actual Earth. (Still bear in mind the supposition that all samples of water here on earth contain micro-organisms.) Indeed why can’t Twin-Earthers reverse the earthling position by claiming that water on earth is not water precisely because each sample of it contains micro-organisms!

The Microscopic and Macroscopic Properties of Water

Bealer offers us another possibility.

He makes a distinction (mentioned in the introduction) between water’s microscopic (or microstructural) and its macroscopic properties (i.e., rather than between water’s possible different microstructural properties). Bealer writes:

“If every disjoint pair of samples of water here on earth have different microstructural compositions but nevertheless uniform macroscopic properties, then on a twin earth a stuff which has those same macroscopic properties would qualify as water.”

We can of course ask about the chances that “every disjoint pair of samples of water” could have “different microstructural compositions”. Wouldn’t the chances of this be virtually zero? And why choose pairs — rather than triples or n-tuples — of water samples in the first place? The passage above also seems to assume that water can be water even if each member of “every disjoint pair of samples” has a different microstructural composition. In any case, here it’s being argued that microstructure isn’t the only factor to consider when it comes to water’s being water. Indeed if each member of every selected pair of samples contains a different microstructural composition, then microstructure simply can’t be a factor at all!

Bealer stresses water’s macroscopic properties in this example.

The water on Twin Earth has the same macroscopic properties as the water here on Earth. However, is it likely that a chemical substance on Twin Earth with a completely different microstructure would have the same macroscopic properties as water here on Earth? Well, it is of course possible. That is, I’m assuming here that Bealer is at least partly referring to experiential (or phenomenal) properties — such as water’s transparency, wetness, liquidity, variant temperature (as registered by the sensory-systems of human beings), thirst-quenching qualities, etc. (The properties of water which chemists cite are very different to these. They include polarity, surface tension, cohesion, adhesion, evaporative cooling, etc.) Now could something that isn’t made up of H₂O molecules be wet, transparent, quench thirst, etc. in exactly the same way that water here on Earth is and does? Well, as before, I presume that all this is possible. (What biological or physiological effects would Twin-Earth water have if a earthling drank it?)

So now we can sum up Bealer’s position with another simple question:

When it comes to natural kinds, why shouldn’t macroscopic properties (i.e., rather than exclusively microstructural properties) be what is important?

Again, isn’t it somewhat arbitrary and/or contingent that philosophers see only microstructural properties as being constitutive of natural kinds (i.e., at least when it comes to natural kinds like water), rather than seeing macroscopic properties in the same way?

Are There Different Kinds of Water?

One needn’t be a chemist or a layperson to find the position that “there are other kinds of water” odd (as some philosophers have done). More concretely, if these other kinds of water share nothing with H₂O molecules, then why are they water at all? Alternatively put, is it possible that “not all water has the same microstructure”? All that may depend on what’s meant by the words “share nothing”. For example, in one scenario it is the case that all rival samples of water do share macroscopic properties; though not microstructural properties. (We can of course debate how the sharing of macroscopic properties actually cashes out.)

In actual fact, not all water here on Earth is made up exclusively of H₂O molecules. As Alex Barber puts it in his book Language and Thought:

“[I]ndeed, we knew this already, since it would surely be stipulative to deny that heavy water (D₂O) is really water.”

Here we’re back to our contingent and/or arbitrary (i.e., “stipulative”) decisions concerning natural kinds. After all, it’s quite possible that some chemists don’t see D₂O (or “heavy water”) as water. In other words, what’s to stop them from deciding that D₂O isn’t water? More clearly and obviously, if D₂O isn’t H₂O, then surely D₂O and H₂O can’t both be water. However, it is the case that the molecules H₂O and D₂O do share some things — they both include an oxygen atom, protons, electrons and other chemical/atomic elements/forces. But does all that matter? Is all that enough?

(A D₂O molecule includes a “heavy” hydrogen atom. It’s heavy because it contains an extra neutron in its nucleus, along with the standard proton. The light hydrogen atom, on the other hand, only contains a single proton.)

Of course one way to “solve” this particular problem is simply to see water’s macroscopic properties as being constitutive of it being a natural kind. Thus, in this case at least (as stated), both H₂O and D₂O do have exactly the same macroscopic properties! (Or do they? Yes; H₂O and D₂O have the same macroscopic properties when it comes to the sensory — or phenomenal — experiences of human beings. But they don’t do so when it comes to chemical analysis — see here.)

So if D₂O is water, then why can’t Twin Earth’s XYZ (along with H₂O and D₂O) also be water? After all, XYX does, at least hypothetically, have the same macroscopic properties. (At least it’s taken to do so in the philosophical literature.)

Conclusion

It’s precisely because of these problems that some philosophers have argued that the word “water” is not a natural kind term at all. However, that may well still mean that the symbol “H₂O” itself does actually symbolise a natural kind. So what natural kind does symbol “H₂O” symbolise? Water? Perhaps, then, in order to avoid this circularity all we really have left is this:

The symbol “H₂O” = (or refers to) H₂O

(Of course the mathematical identity/equality sign above can’t be taken literally. A symbol can’t literally be identical to what it symbolises.)

Or, at the the very least, all we have is this:

The symbol “H₂O” = a molecule made up of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom (plus lots of other molecular, quantum, bonding, etc. stuff)

So is heavy water (or D₂O) a genuine natural kind? And if we take H₂O as a natural kind, then are both D₂O and H₂O genuine natural kinds? Indeed are they the same natural kind (if with slight microstructural differences)? But, again, which one is truly water? Both? Alternatively, perhaps neither is a natural kind.





Tuesday, 27 October 2020

Alan Turing Believed the Question “Can machines think?” to be Meaningless


 

Can machines (or computers) think?

What did Alan Turing have to say to that question? Well, he believed that the question is too “meaningless to answer”. In full, he wrote:

“The original question, ‘Can machines think?’, I believe to be too meaningless to deserve discussion.”

In other words, how can we even answer that question if we don’t really know what thinking actually is in the first place? After all, is forming a mental image in one’s mind thinking? Is recalling someone from one’s past an act of thinking? What about simply surveying (both non-verbally and non-subvocally) a scene in front of you or picking up a book from the floor? If all these cases are examples of thinking, then what do they all share? Indeed do they share anything at all?

So now let’s also take the newer word “cognition”, which is a kinda synonym for the word “thinking”. In 1966, Ulric Neisser (the “father of cognitive psychology”) wrote these words:

“[T]he term ‘cognition’ refers to all processes by which the sensory input is transformed, reduced, elaborated, stored, recovered, and used. It is concerned with these processes even when they operate in the absence of relevant stimulation, as in images and hallucinations.”

Then Neisser concluded in the following way:

“[G]iven such a sweeping definition, it is apparent that cognition is involved in everything a human being might do; that every psychological phenomenon is a cognitive phenomenon.”

Thus, because of these and other complications, Alan Turing suggested bypassing the question “Can a machine think” entirely. Or at least he didn’t attempt to define the word “think”. Instead, he asked us whether or not a person would ever believe that he/she was having a conversation with another person (say, by letter, phone, behind a screen, etc.) when, in fact, he/she was actually conversing with a computer.

This was Turing’s well-known “test” of what it is to think (i.e., the Turing test).

Kurt Gödel would have nothing to do with this purely (as it were) behaviourist answer to the question “Can a machine think?” To him it didn’t matter if a computer or machine could (as it were) hoodwink people. What mattered to him was whether or not a computer can… well, really think.

Of course this position takes us back to square one.

One may therefore assume that Gödel believed that he had a/the correct definition of the word “think”. (Precise definitions of the word “think” may not matter that much in these cases anyway.) And that’s because he rejected Turing’s claim that computers will, in time, be able to think just as human beings think.

Simulation, Replication, Duplication

The following are some helpful definitions of certain relevant words within this context. These definitions also show us the interdefinable nature of these words and the fact that they constitute what may be called a “vicious circle”:

“simulation” — noun. imitation or enactment, as of something anticipated or in testing. the act or process of pretending; feigning. an assumption or imitation of a particular appearance or form; counterfeit; sham.

“replication” — it generally involves repeating something. (Students of biology will know that the word is often used to indicate that an exact duplicate has been made, such as chromosomes that replicate themselves.)

“duplicate” — something that is an exact copy of something else.

imitation” — something copied, or the act of copying.

To go into more detail on Gödel’s position.

Gödel believed that Turing had conflated the simulation of thought with genuine (human) thought. This may be analogous to the manner in which a computer-screen simulation of a fire is not a fire itself. (Gödel never used such an example.) However, is this analogy perfect? Not really. Sometimes when you simulate you actually replicate (or duplicate) what it is you’re supposed to be simulating. Thus if I simulate someone running, then I will actually be running. (That’s if I actually physically move my legs in the same manner as someone running; rather than, say, comically pretend to be running or create a computer simulation of me running.) Similarly, if I “simulate” someone jumping off a cliff, then I will actually be jumping off a cliff.

So, in this context at least, perhaps the words “imitate” and “copy” are more accurate than the word “simulate”. So what about imitating (or copying) someone running? Well, that would actually be running too. More relevantly, what about a computer imitating (or copying) human thinking? Wouldn’t that itself be a case of thinking?

In any case, the word “imitation” was used by Turing himself in the following passage from 1950:

“I believe that in about fifty years’ time [I.e., in the year 2000] it will be possible to programme computers, with a storage capacity of about 10–9, to make them play the imitation game so well that an average interrogator will not have more than 70 per cent. chance of making the right identification after five minutes of questioning.”

It can be seen that Turing’s claims above aren’t too grandiloquent at all. Firstly, Turing gave it fifty years (i.e., up to the year 2000) before a machine could successfully “win” the imitation game. And that’s even though crude computers had already been built when Turing wrote these words. (Computers date back to the 19th century — and arguably before that — with Charles Babbage’s computer; and Turing himself began designing his own “practical universal computing machine” in 1945.) Secondly, Turing only gives “an average interrogator” around a “70 per cent. chance of making the right identification”. Added to that, this interrogator is given “five minutes of questioning” in order to determine whether or not he’s talking to a machine. So one would intuitively believe that most people might have spotted the fake conversationalist immediately.

Now what about the words “”duplication” and “replication”?

If a computer successfully (or even unsuccessfully) adds 2 to 2 and get 4, then surely that is a duplication (or replication) of what humans do. Gödel, again, didn’t think so. That was mainly because he believed that when a computer carries out that addition, it is “merely” following a programme or abiding by a set of rules. (As the mathematical physicist Roger Penrose puts it, the computer doesn’t actually understand the “meanings” of the symbols “2” and “4” — see note at the end of this piece.) But isn’t that also — at least partly —what humans do? What is it that humans do — in the case of addition — that computers don’t do? Sure, there may be additional things which occur in a human mind when he/she adds 2 to 2. However, none of that is essential to that act of addition. Thus a human may be imagining 2 apples being added to 2 apples. Or he/she may be hearing music when in the process of addition. However, all this is over and above the act of adding 2 to 2.

As it is, Gödel had something else in mind here. He believed that when it comes to thought and mathematical reasoning (or at least when it comes to the “seeing” of a mathematical “truth” — see here), human beings transcend mere rule-following (or go beyond “algorithms” and the purely “mechanical”) and enter into another (as it were) realm… But that’s a subject for another day!

Note:

“[T]here is also a mystery about how it is that we perceive mathematical truth. It is not just that our brains are programmed to ‘calculate’ in reliable ways. There is something much more profound than that in the insights that even the humblest among us possess when we appreciate, for example, the actual meanings of the terms ‘zero’, ‘one’, ‘three’, ‘four’, etc.” — Roger Penrose (from his Road To Reality)