Integrated
Information Theory (IIT) demands a physical explanation of
consciousness. This rules out, for example, entirely functional
explanations;
as well as unwarranted correlations between consciousness and the
physical. Indeed if consciousness is identical to the physical (not
merely correlated with it or caused by it), then clearly the
physical (as information, etc.) is paramount in the IIT picture.
All
this is given a quasi-logical explanation in terms of axioms and
postulates. That is, there must be identity claims between IIT's "axioms of consciousness" and postulates about the physical. Moreover,
the axioms fulfill the role of premises. These premises lead to the
physical postulates.
So what
is the nature of that relation between these axioms and their postulates? How do we connect, for example, a conscious state with a neuroscientific explanation of that conscious state? How is the
ontological/explanatory
gap crossed?
As
hinted at earlier, the identity of consciousness and the physical isn't a question of the latter causing or bringing about
the former. Thus, if x
and y
are
identical, then
x
can't cause y
and y
can't
cause x.
These identities stretch even as far as phenomenology in that the
phenomenology of conscious state x at time
t is
identical with the physical properties described by the postulates at
time t.
More
technically, Giulio Tononi (2008) identifies conscious states
with integrated information. Moreover, when information is integrated
(by whichever physical system – not only the brain) in a
complicated enough manner (even if minimally complicated), that will
be both necessary and sufficient to constitute (not cause or create)
a conscious state or experience.
Explaining
IIT's identity-claims (between the axioms of consciousness and the
physical postulates) can also be done by stating what Tononi does
not believe
about consciousness. Tononi doesn't
believe that
i)
the brain's physical features (described by the postulates) cause or
bring about consciousness.
ii)
the brain's physical features (described by the postulates) are both
necessary and sufficient for consciousness.
Causality
Where
we have the physical, we must also have the causal. And indeed IIT
stresses causality. If consciousness exists (as the first axiom
states), then it must be causal in nature. It must “make a causal
difference”. Thus epiphenomenalism, for one, is ruled out.
Again,
consciousness itself must have causal power. Therefore this isn't a
picture of the physical brain causing consciousness (or even
subserving
consciousness).
It is said, in IIT, that “consciousness exists from its own
perspective”. This means that a conscious state
qua
conscious state (or experience qua
experience) must have causal power both on itself and on its
exterior. Indeed the first axiom (of existence) and its postulate
require that a conscious state has what's called a “cause-effect
power”. It must be capable of having an affect on behaviour or
actions (such a picking something up) as well as a “power over
itself”. (Such as resulting in a modification of a belief caused by
that conscious state?) This, as started earlier, clearly rules out
any form of epiphenomenalism.
Now
does this mean that a belief (as such) has causal powers? Does
this mean that the experience of yellow has – or could have –
causal powers? Perhaps because beliefs aren't entirely
phenomenological, and spend most of their time in the “belief box”
(according to non-eliminative accounts), then they aren't a good
candidate for having causal powers in this phenomenological sense.
However, the experience of yellow is a casual power if it can cause a
subject to pick up, say, a lemon (qua lemon).
From
Consciousness to Brain Again
Even
if IIT starts with consciousness, it's very hard, intuitively, to see
how it would be at all possible to move to the postulated
physical aspects (not bases or causes) of a conscious state. How
would that work? How, even in principle, can we move from
consciousness (or phenomenology) to the physical aspects of that
consciousness state? If there's a ontological/explanatory gap between
the physical and the mental; then there may be/is an ontological
gap/explanatory gap between consciousness and the physical. (There'll
also be epistemological gaps.) So how does this IIT inversion solve
any of these problems?
The
trick is supposed to be pulled off by an analysis the phenomenology
of a conscious state (or experience) and then accounting for that
with the parallel state of the physical system which is the physical
aspect of that conscious state. (Think here of Spinoza and Donald
Davidson's "anomalous monism" – or substance monism/conceptual dualism - is which a single substance has two "modes".) But
what does that mean? The ontological/explanatory
gap,
sure enough, shows its face here just as much as it does anywhere
else in the philosophy of consciousness. Isn't this a case of
comparing oranges with apples – only a whole lot more extreme?
An
additional problem is to explain how the physical modes/aspects of a
conscious state must be “constrained” by the properties of that
conscious state (or vice versa?). Again, what does that actually
mean? In theory it would be easy to find some kind of structural
physical correlates
of a conscious state. The problem would be to make sense of - and
justify - those correlations. For example, I could correlate my
wearing black shoes with Bradford City winning away. Clearly, in this
instance “correlation doesn't imply causation”. However, if IIT
doesn't accept that the physical causes conscious states, but that
they are
conscious states (or a mode therefore), then, on this example, my black
shoes may actually
be
Bradford City winning at home (rather than the shoes causing that
win)... Of course shoes and football victories aren't modes/aspects
of the same thing. Thus the comparison doesn't work.
It
doesn't immediately help, either, when IIT employs (quasi?)-logical
terms to explain and account for these different aspects/modes of the
same thing. Can we legitimately move from the axioms of a conscious
experience to the essential properties (named “postulates”) of
the physical modes/aspects of that conscious experience?
Here
we're meant to be dealing with the "intrinsic" properties of experience which are then tied to the (intrinsic?)
properties of the physical aspects/modes of that experience.
Moreover, every single experience is meant to have its own axiom/s.
Nonetheless,
if an axiomatic premise alone doesn't deductively entail (or even
imply) its postulate, then why call it an “axiom” at all?
Tononi
(2015)
explains this is terms of "inference to the best explanation" (otherwise called abduction).
Here, instead of a strict logical deduction from a phenomenological
axiom to a physical postulate, the postulates have (merely)
statistical inductive support. Tononi believes that such an abduction
shows us that conscious systems have “cause-effect power over
themselves”. Clearly, behavioural and neuroscientific evidence
may/will show this to be the case.
Conclusion
Sceptically
it may be said that the "ontological gap" (or the "hard
problem")
appears to have been bridged (or even solved) by mere phraseology. What I
mean by this is that IIT identifies a conscious state with physical
things in the brain. (Namely, the physical elements and dynamics of
the brain.) These things are measurable. Thus, if that's the case,
then a conscious state is measurable in that the dynamical and
physical reality of the brain (at a given time) is measurable. Indeed
in IIT it's even said that something called the “phi metric” can
“quantify consciousness”.
Is
the hard
problem
of consciousness solved merely through this process of
identification?
The
IIT theorist may reply: What
more do you want?!
However, then we can reply:
Indeed isn't the identification of conscious states with the physical and dynamical elements of the brain what philosophers have done for decades? Do IIT's new technical/scientific terms (as well as references to “information”) give us anything fundamentally new in this long-running debate on the nature of consciousness?
Correlations between conscious states and brain states (or even the brain's causal necessitation of a conscious state) aren't themselves explanations of consciousness.
Indeed isn't the identification of conscious states with the physical and dynamical elements of the brain what philosophers have done for decades? Do IIT's new technical/scientific terms (as well as references to “information”) give us anything fundamentally new in this long-running debate on the nature of consciousness?
*)
Next: 'Integrated Information Theory: Structure (3)'
References
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