Wednesday, 27 June 2018

Philosophy Now - "What are the moral limits to free speech?"



"What are the moral limits to free speech?

“Please give and justify your answer in less than 400 words.” - Philosophy Now (April/May 2018)

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Dear Editor,

It's odd really. Many people claim to be strongly in favour of free speech. Yet, as soon as you scratch the surface, you'll quickly find that almost all the people you talk to quickly realise (or acknowledge) that there must be at least some limits to free speech.

But there's a problem here.

People cite very different reasons as to why there should be limits to free speech. They also cite different examples of the kind of speech they believe should be limited (or made illegal). Having said that, it's also true that there are some well-known limits to free speech which almost everyone agrees upon. (Such as “shouting 'Fire!' in a crowded cinema” or encouraging paedophilia in public spaces.) Nevertheless, other proposed limits to free speech often tend to simply reflect people's extremely specific political biases. And because of that, it can be said that free speech would be drastically curtailed if all our political biases were acted upon by the state or by the legal system.

So perhaps any limits which are placed on free speech should be given a moral – i.e., not a political – justification. (Of course this is hinted at in the opening question.) Yet some people may now say that morality and politics are firmly intertwined when it comes to free speech! However, surely the two can be separated if the proposed limits on free speech are given abstract moral (as well as philosophical) justifications. In that way, even people who strongly disagree when it comes to politics could (at least in theory) accept such limits if they were given such moral justifications.

Despite all that, almost every moral justification of a limit to free speech will have its exceptions and opponents. It's also the case that extreme or perverse limitations on free speech could be morally justified. (Such as the argument that allowing people to debate race or violence will inevitably encourage racism or violence.) Self-referentially speaking, even limiting (or banning) the public discussion of the question “What are the moral limits to free speech?” could be morally justified.

Surely this must mean that no single moral justification of the limits of free speech will ever receive universal approval or acceptance. Nonetheless, a complete consensus may not be required in the first place. After all, no philosophical, moral or political justification or position will ever please everyone. And that, of course, isn't necessarily a bad thing.

Yours,
Paul Austin Murphy.


Friday, 8 June 2018

My Letter to Philosophy Now - 'Heidegger's Ways of Being'


Dear Editor,

In the Philosophy Now piece, 'Heidegger's Ways of Being', Andrew Royle claims that Martin Heidegger offered us a “direct refutation of Rene Descartes' solitary introspection”. Is that really the case?

Descartes “global scepticism” was an epistemological exercise. It had little - or nothing - to do with ontology. It was about how Descartes – or about how we - could know, and then philosophically demonstrate, that (to use Andrew Royle's own words) “the world and other people actually exist”. It wasn't even that Descartes didn't believe that the world and other people existed. Descartes' enterprise was about his knowledge of other people's existence. Indeed Descartes' initial scepticism is also what's called “methodological scepticism” (or “methodological doubt”). That is, it was supposed to be sure route to knowledge. It was a philosophical method which was designed to show us that knowledge of the world and other people is possible.

As for the Heideggerian grammar of the word 'I'.

Say, for argument's sake, that the use of the word 'I' also (as Royle puts it) “necessarily refers to... 'you' or an 'other'”. How did Descartes know that all the people he'd experienced weren't also the simulations of an “evil demon”? Thus such simulations (or mental distortions) might have also grounded Descartes' use of the word 'I'.

To put that another way. If the Matrix and “brain-in-a-vat” (Hilary Putnam) scenarios are possible, then it's equally possible that the simulations we have of other people may ground our use of the word 'I'. Indeed one can even say that a Heideggerian notion of “social Being” (or Dasein) can exist alongside Cartesian scepticism – indeed even if the Matrix and brain-in-a-vat scenarios are possible. (Putnam, of course, argues that his own scenario isn't possible – and for loosely Heideggerian reasons!)

As for solipsism. To quote Arthur Royle himself:


“Although Heidegger's argument works to abate Descartes' solipsism... Whilst the 'I' (or 'ego') was indubitably alone for Descartes...”

In everyday-life terms, Descartes would have left his doubts well behind after he'd solved (or thought he'd solved) the “sceptical problem”. (Just as Hume forgot his own scepticism when playing billiards.)

This means that Descartes most certainly wasn't a solipsist. (Though it can of course be said that he was a “methodological solipsist” for the duration of the Cogito.)

A genuine solipsist is someone who does indeed have an ontological position on what Royle calls the “I” or “ego”. What's more, a solipsist feels the reality of his solipsism throughout his life. (Or at least he does so for as long as he's a solipsist or thinks about his philosophical predicament.) Descartes, on the other hand, took a journey from his radical scepticism to a sure knowledge (or so he believed) of the world and other people. Now that's very far from being solipsism.

Not only that: solipsism has ontological and ethical implications. However, that isn't really the case when it comes to Descartes' scepticism. Having said that, it's indeed the case that certain political and sociological theorists have interpreted Descartes' scepticism as a 17th-century philosophical expression of “bourgeois individualism”. Yet even if that were true, Descartes never made this explicit. With Heidegger and solipsists, on the other hand, their ontological and ethical positions are indeed made explicit.

Yours,
Paul Austin Murphy.



Saturday, 2 June 2018

James Ladyman on Structural Realism


In his Understanding Philosophy of Science), James Ladyman says that “structural realism” was “introduced” by the philosopher John Worrall. 

This position - within the philosophy of science (though mainly within the philosophy of physics) - has it that structures are fundamental. What's more, structures are real (hence the word “realism”).

At the heart of structural realism is the idea that physics essentially deals with structures, not with “things” or entities. More importantly, it is these structures which are retained in physics; not the things which physics posits. That is, such structures can be passed on from an old theory to a new theory (i.e., when both theories are - ostensibly - about the same phenomenon or problem).

Thus structural realism is a realism about structure, not about things, conditions or “empirical content”. As Ladyman puts Worrall's position:

... we should not accept full blown scientific realism, which asserts that the nature of things is correctly described by the metaphysical and physical content of our best theories. Rather, we should adopt the structural realist emphasis on the mathematical or structural content of our theories.”

More relevantly

Since there is (says Worrall) retention of structure across theory change, structuralism realism both (a) avoids the force of the pessimistic meta-induction (by not committing us to beliefs in the theory's description of the furniture of the world), and (b) does not make the success of science... seem miraculous...”

Thus structural realism has an argument against the well-known position of “pessimistic meta-induction”: i.e., such pessimism only applies to “empirical content” and “theory”, not to structure. That is, structure is retained “across theory change” and thus total inductive pessimism is unjustified.

So three questions arise here:

i) What is structure?
ii) Is structure really retained “across theory change”?
iii) And (this is related to i) above) how is structure distinguished from “empirical content” and “theory”?

Henri Poincaré's Structuralism

James Ladyman traces structural realism back to Max Plank and Henri Poincaré. For example, Ladyman quotes Plank stating the following:

... 'Thus the physical world has become progressively more and more abstract; purely formal mathematical operations play a growing part.'...”

Indeed Plank's position is one which most physicists would uphold; even if they wouldn't use Plank's precise wording. Of course this is simply an indirect acknowledgment that that there would be no physics without “mathematical operations”; or, more broadly, without mathematics itself.

Thus, in a broad sense, the structural realism position is that it's all about the maths. Or, at the least, it's all about the mathematical structures noted by physicists.

Ladyman also tells us that Poincaré

talks of the redundant theories of the past capture the 'true relations' between the 'real objects which Nature will hide for ever from our eyes'...”

So here Poincaré's response to the pessimistic meta-induction is to argue that “true relations” are retained from theory to theory; even if the things or phenomena mentioned in the theories aren't. As can also be seen, Poincaré uses different jargon to contemporary structural realists in that he talked of “true relations” rather than “structures”. Then again, structural realists also make extensive us of the word “relations”. After all, it's the structures of the physical world which account for these relations; and, in a sense, they're also constituted by such relations.

Nonetheless, Poincaré does seem to depart from contemporary structural realism when he talked about “real objects”. As can be shown, structural realists (especially ontic structural realists) dispense entirely with objects or things - “real” or otherwise. Or at least they believe that “every thingmust go”. Despite that, since Poincaré qualifies his reference to “real objects” with the clause that “Nature will hide [these real objects] for ever from our eyes”, then it can be said that Poincaré – effectively - did indeed dispense with objects/things too. That is, when Poincaré used the phrase “for ever from our eyes”, presumably he wasn't only talking about literal visual (or observational) contact with real objects. He must have also meant any kind of contact with them – including (as it were) theoretical contact. Thus Poincaré's real objects were little more than Kantian noumena and therefore of little use in physics. Then again, since Poincaré was also a Kantian, noumena might well have had a role to play in his metaphysics and physics.

So was Poincare a Kantian and a structural realist at one and the same time?

Just as Poincaré used the words “true relations” instead of the word “structure”, so the philosopher of science Howard Stein uses the word “Forms”. That is, Stein says (as quoted by Ladyman) that

our science comes closest to comprehending 'the real', not in its account of 'substances' and their kinds, but in its account of the 'Forms' which phenomena 'imitate' (for 'Forms' read 'theoretical structures', for 'imitate', 'are represented by'”.

Clearly Stein is attempting to tie contemporary structural realism to a long philosophical - and indeed Platonic - tradition. He does so with his use of the words “Forms” (with a platonic 'H') and “imitate”. Then again, he also rejects the equally venerable (i.e., in the history of philosophy) “substances” and “kinds”.

Having said that, this very same passage can be read as expressing the position that Forms (or “theoretical structures”) are actually imitating (or “representing”) “substances and their kinds”. So, as with Kantian noumena, it's not that substances don't exist: it's that our only access to them is through theoretical structures: i.e., through the mathematical structures and models of physics. If this reading of Stein is correct, then that makes his position almost eliminativist. As with Kant's noumena, Poincaré's “real objects” and ontic structural realism's “things”, aren't Stein's “substances” also (to use Wittgenstein's words) “idle wheels in the mechanism”? What purpose do they serve? Do they serve as a abstract Kantian “grounding” or as a Lockean “I know not what”? Or, to quote Wittgenstein again, perhaps it's best to conclude: “Whereof one cannot speak thereof one must be silent.”

Examples from Physics

Maxwell and Fresnel

James Ladyman cites John Worrall's example of the structural elements of Augustin-Jean Fresnel's theory (of light waves) passing over to James Clerk Maxwell's later theory. Ladyman quotes Worrall thus:

... 'There was an important element of continuity in the shift from Fresnel to Maxwell.'... ”

More relevantly, this

'was much more than a simple question of carrying over the successful empirical content into the new theory'...”

However, neither was it just a case of “carrying over or the full theoretical content or full theoretical mechanisms”.

Thus, if it's not just a case of “empirical content” and “theoretical content” being “carried over”, then what else was also carried over? The answer to this is: structure. That is, Fresnel's theory shares a certain structure with Maxwell's later theory. Or as Worrall himself puts it:

... 'There was continuity or accumulation in the shift, but the continuity is one of form or structure, not of content.'...”

Clearly Worrall doesn't see Fresnel's and Maxwell's theories as only being (what's often called) “empirically equivalent”. He states that it's not (only) “empirical contents” which are passed on. That must mean that the two theories are also theoretically “under-determined” by the empirical content.

This means that Fresnel's and Maxwell's theories are neither empirically nor theoretically identical. So does that mean that these two theories are structurally (or formerly) identical instead? Worrall may not also believe in complete structural identity between these two (or any) separate theories. However, he clearly does believe that structural identity is more important (or more substantive) than any empirical or theoretical identity.

Thus it follows from all this that we'll now need to know how it is, precisely, that structure is distinguished form both empirical and theoretical content when it comes to the theories of Fresnel and Maxwell – and indeed when it comes to any comparative theories in physics.

Newton & Quantum Mechanics

Worrall also attributes a structuralist position (if not an explicit acceptance of structuralism) to Issac Newton. Worrall describes Newton's structuralist reality (if not his position) in the following manner:

... 'On the structural realist view, what Newton really discovered are the relationships between phenomena expressed in the mathematical equations of his theory.'... ”

In certain respects, this is certainly true. For example, it's often and justifiably stated that quantum mechanics wouldn't so much as exist without its mathematical descriptions and predictions. John Horgan, for one, states that

mathematics helps physicists definite what is otherwise undefinable. A quark is a purely mathematical construct. It has no meaning apart from its mathematical definition. The properties of quarks – charm, colour, strangeness – are mathematical properties that have no analogue in the macroscopic world we inhabit.”

Isn't all the above just as true of much of Newton's work? However, it's certainly the case that Newton wasn't an eliminativist when it came to things/objects (or when it came to Poincaré's “real objects”). Despite that, it was still “mathematical equations” which captured the things or phenomena Newton was accounting for in his theories.

The question (as with quantum mechanics) is:

Is there any remainder after the mathematics (or mathematical structure) is taken away?

What's left? Kantian noumena or, well, literally nothing? Of course it's hard to defend an eliminativist position when it comes to Newton and the concrete things he was talking about (e.g., stars, the moon, etc.). However, eliminativism seems much more appealing and justified when it comes to the micro world of quantum mechanics. In this realm, everything really does seem to be mathematical. Quite simply, there are no genuine equivalents to the moon, stars and even gravity (at least Newtonian gravity) in the quantum realm. In other words, our only access to the micro world is through mathematics. Clearly, that can't also be said of the world as described by Newton.