Sunday, 18 April 2021

Continental Philosophy vs. Analytic Philosophy: Clarity, Obscurity, Argument


 

i) Introduction
ii) Analysis and Argumentation
iii) Clarity
iv) Obscurity
v) Deconstruction
vi) Conclusion

The subjects covered in this piece have often brought about much heated debate. Indeed the very title of this piece will make some philosophers and commentators get very hot under the collar.

Of course the following words are bound to be biased — at least to some extent. That said, critics of my position will be — to some extent — biased too. So all that should simply be taken as given.

Put basically, my own bias leans toward analytic philosophy. Yet that doesn’t mean that I’m entirely positive about analytic philosophy or entirely negative about continental philosophy.

What’s more, the very terms “analytic philosophy” and “continental philosophy” have inevitably been fiercely criticised by philosophers and commentators. Some have classed them as worthless generalisations which have many exceptions. (A couple are discussed in this piece.)

So now let’s take Professor Simon Glendinning’s rhetorical — and almost shouty — words. Firstly we have this:

“[C]ontinental philosophy could not have conceived itself, because crudely speaking, there is no continental philosophy.”

Indeed Simon Glendinning believes that “the term ‘continental’ is an Anglophone designation”. Oddly enough, he most certainly does believe that there is such a thing as “Anglophone analytic philosophy”. And if you want to know the position of (to use his own words) “self-styled analytic philosophy” on continental philosophy (which, remember, doesn’t exist), it’s

“the false personification… the possibility of being empty, the possibility of sophistry”.

What’s more, for analytic philosophy (in its “rhetoric”), continental philosophy is its own “other”.

Ironically there are some “binary oppositions” (not Glendinning’s own words) which have been set up between analytic philosophy and continental philosophy which Glendinning completely rejects and which I — to some extent at least — believe are very real. He cites the cases of

“logic and rhetoric; clarity and obscurity; precision and vagueness; literal language and poetic language; analysis and speculation”.

Yet despite all of Glendinning’s problems and his rejection of the terms, in the very same book from which his words come (i.e., New British Philosophy: The Interviews), Professor Simon Critchley not only accepts that there is such a thing as continental philosophy, he also tells us what its “goal” is. (Incidentally, Critchley explicitly states he’s more sympathetic to continental philosophy than to analytic philosophy). In full:

“The goal of continental philosophy is both individual and social emancipation.”

He then continues by saying that the

“continental tradition can be summarised in three terms: critiquepraxis and emancipation”.

So because there’s disagreement on these issues even among the fans of continental philosophy and the critics of analytic philosophy, I may as well stick to my guns by stating the following words.

In most cases one would recognise if a paper were written by an analytic philosopher (as opposed to one written by a continental philosopher — even if written in English!) almost within seconds. More particularly, if a paper by, say, a post-structuralist accidently found itself in a analytic philosophy journal (such as Analysis or Mind), then it would stick out like a sore thumb and readers would spot it immediately. Similarly, a piece on, say, mereological nihilism by Ted Snider which somehow found itself in a continental philosophy journal (such as Continental Philosophy Review or Deleuze and Guattari Studies) would immediately bring about similar responses on the (scare-quoted) “other side”.

Again - of course there are exceptions! Yet the prose styles and subjects used and covered by analytic and continental philosophers are — in many cases — so monumentally different that the exceptions may not tell us as much as some commentators (such as Glendinning) claim.

To sum up.

The large and obvious differences between most analytic philosophy and much continental philosophy obviously don’t factor out the often small and rare similarities.

Analytic Philosophy


Many analytic philosophers stress the point that analytic philosophy isn’t about the sharing of views or positions. They claim, instead, that it’s about the sharing of philosophical tools and a basic commitment to clarity. And all this is regardless of what philosophical position a particular analytic philosopher may advance.

In his book What is Analytic Philosophy?Hans-Johann Glock elaborates on this position in the following:

“Philosophy is not about sharing doctrines, but about a rational and civilised debate even about one’s own cherished assumptions.”

It can be seen that Glock doesn’t use the words “analytic philosophy” at the beginning of the passage above. However, he does conclude by saying that

“[s]uch a debate remains easier among analytic philosophers than between analytic and continental philosophers”.

Of course it’s also the case that many analytic philosophers do actually “share doctrines”. However, it’s just that the sharing of philosophical tools and practices is deemed to be more important than sharing doctrines. It also seems to follow that from the sharing of philosophical tools and the commitment to clarity there can be “rational and civilised debates even about one’s cherished assumptions”. That is, the sharing of philosophical tools and a commitment to clarity enables (or allows) rational and civilised debate.

Certain questions naturally arise here:

i) Do analytic philosophers really share many — or indeed any — philosophical tools?
ii) Is there 
genuine civilised debate between all analytic philosophers at all times?

Many commentators have questioned this claim that analytic philosophers share tools. Others might have questioned the deepness (or genuineness) of the “civilised debate” too. This basically means that there’ll be exceptions to i) and ii) above — and no one should expect otherwise. However, on the whole, it’s easy to see that most analytic philosophers do indeed share many tools and practices.

All this runs parallel to an account of science as a whole which can be distinguished from any accounts of individual scientists. That is, individual scientists can be very unrepresentative individuals: they can falsify experimental data, stick dogmatically to their theories, be told what to say and do by big business, let their politics influence their science, etc. Nonetheless, unrepresentative scientists certainly aren’t the norm in most science. Sure; all this will also partly depend partly on which science we’re talking about; which period of scientific history; the country in which scientists work; etc.

The same kinds of distinction can be made between individual analytic philosophers and analytic philosophy itself. There may indeed be unrepresentative analytic philosophers. It may even be the case that poor standards (however that’s defined) are sometimes displayed within books or academic papers. (They’re certainly displayed by many analytic philosophers on Twitter when they discuss anything even remotely political.) However, as with science, none of this is really true of analytic philosophy as a whole.

Analysis & Argumentation


In broad terms, it can be said that Philosopher X is an analytic philosopher simply because he uses the tools of analytic philosophy and indulges in philosophical analysis. Of course we’d need to specify exactly what the tools of analytic philosophy are and what, precisely, philosophical analysis is. Indeed these issues have caused a lot of dispute actually within analytic philosophy— especially in the last couple of decades.

So analytic philosophers have also provided analyses of the words “philosophical analysis” and subsequently asked some questions about the term. For example, Professor Barry Dainton and Professor Howard Robinson have this to say about philosophical analysis within the tradition of analytic philosophy:

“[T]here are many different conceptions of analysis to be found within the analytic tradition. For some ‘analysis’ means an investigations into concepts. For those impressed by Russell’s theory of descriptions, analysis is a matter of revealing the true but concealed logical form underlying ordinary language statements. For others it is a matter of carefully studying the way expressions are actually used in ordinary language, with a view to dissolving rather than solving philosophical problems.”

These are very different accounts of philosophical analysis. However, surely we can still count them all as being philosophical analysis. Though this raises the questions as to what other types (or examples) of philosophy bypass analysis altogether; and, indeed, if that’s even possible.

One thing that analytic philosophers do share is a commitment to argumentation. That is, the “investigation into concepts” mentioned above will also usually involve argumentation of some kind. The same is true of Bertrand Russell’s approach and the stress on the expressions of ordinary language. All these approaches will include argumentation and also be defended with argumentation.

Argumentation, then, is opposed to simply making statements or offering “occult pronouncements”. That is, when someone engages in argumentation, that basically means that he’s defending (or justifying) what it is he has said.

In much continental philosophy, on the other hand, there are many statements which don’t appear to be the result of prior argument. That is, they aren’t conclusions of claims or premises which themselves contain arguments, data, or empirical evidence. At its worst, such philosophy makes philosophical pronouncements that aren’t argumentatively defended (or justified) at all. Of course here I’ve simply shifted the debate here from an account of the words “philosophical analysis” to references to “argument”, “justification” and the like. So it can now be said that analysis either is argumentation or that it includes argumentation.

Clarity


The idea that analytic philosophy isn’t a matter of doctrines is again stressed by the European Society for Analytic PhilosophyIt writes:

“Analytic philosophy is characterised above all by the goal of clarity, the insistence on explicit explanation in philosophy, and the demand that any view expressed be exposed to the rigours of critical evaluation and discussion by peers.”

It can be said that the notions “clarity” and “explicit explanation” may simply be relative to analytic philosophers and what they take those words to mean. In other words, analytic philosophy may only be clear to analytic philosophers. And the explicit explanations found in analytic philosophy may only work that way according to analytic philosophers. This may mean that those on the outside (including highly-educated people) may not appreciate (or even recognise) the clarity or take the explanations to be explanations. Of course this is a sceptical view of both analytic philosophy and the passage above. Nonetheless, even if clarity and these explicit explanations are only relative to analytic philosophers, it’s surely still the case that most analytic philosophers have the “goals” of clarity and explanation in mind. And that takes analytic philosophers one step beyond many continental philosophers; who, it can be argued, often revel in obscurity and pseudo-profundity.

The final passage in the above also seems to explicitly and strongly tie all analytic philosophy to a university setting in that it stresses the “critical evaluation and discussion by peers”. Presumably these peers will be fellow academics. This also highlights the fact that analytic philosophy is more closely tied to university departments than continental philosophy. Of course there’ve also been many continental philosophers who’ve been professors or academics. (Virtually all the critics of analytic philosophy have been — and still are — academics/professors too ; as with those names cited and quoted in this piece.) However, when it comes to analytic philosophy, virtually every well-known (or even not so well-known) analytic philosopher has made his name at some university or other. Indeed analytic philosophy outside of a university setting seems to be like a fish out of water.

Analytic philosophers rationalise this extreme university-centric bias by stressing the technicalities and specialisms of the subject. They may say, for example, that most physicists and biologists are also tied to — and reliant upon — universities. Yet even in the case of physicists and biologists there have been far more people who’ve done good work outside universities than analytic philosophers. (This includes the many “amateur scientists” who did great work from the 17th century onward.) Of course once a philosopher has established himself in a university (or in a handful of universities), then he’s free to move beyond academia. However, even this is very rare within analytic philosophy. It seems, then, that contemporary analytic philosophy really is a university phenomenon and that partly explains the European Society for Analytic Philosophy’s reference to the “critical evaluation of peers”.

Obscurity


Hans-Johann Glock referred to “rigour, clarity, scholarship and intellectual honesty” in the passage above. Of course these virtues aren’t the sole domain of analytic philosophy. After all and to take only three examples, Aristotle, Hume and Descartes all predate analytic philosophy and their work was analytical. There were also 20th century continental philosophers who were rigorous and analytical. On the other hand, many continental philosophers have indeed been obscure and pretentious. But this simply begs the question as to what analytic philosophers mean by the word “obscure”.

So let’s go into a little more detail as to what the word “clarity” may mean within a philosophical context. I will quote the American philosopher Gary Gutting here. He wrote:

“My concern, however, is about the obscurity that arises because authors do not make a sufficient effort to connect their novel concepts to more familiar (even if technical) concepts that would all an informed and conscientious reader to make an assessment of their claims. The result is writing that is hermetic in the sense that it cuts itself off from the very issues of common concern that it is trying to address.”

First things first.

It will be said that that passage is a gross generalisation. Is this meant to be about all continental philosophy? After all, I doubt that Gary Gutting had Frege, Husserl, Carnap and others in mind when he wrote the above. Indeed I doubt that what he says can be applied to (much of) Michel Foucault, Jürgen Habermas, Maurice Merleau-Ponty and other continental philosophers. Yet the reason for this is simply that Gutting only had Gilles Deleuze, Jacques Derrida and Emmanuel Levinas in mind.

In the passage above there’s also a hint (rather than an explicit statement) that such uncertainty and obscurity is deliberate. That is, such philosophers

“do not make a sufficient effort to connect novel concepts to more familiar concepts”.

This means that the writing Gutting has in mind is intentionally “hermetic”. In other words, there can be philosophical writing styles which are unclear or even obscure — yet not deliberately so. This may apply to a philosopher like Kant or perhaps to certain works by Husserl. More clearly, I doubt that Kant went out of his way to be unclear or obscure. Yet Kant is indeed often unclear (depending on translations) because of his writing style, his academic audience and the complexity of the issues he was addressing. Nonetheless, his writing is rarely also rhetorical or oracular; as much continental philosophy is.

So why this deliberate obscurity or unclarity?

The American philosopher John Searle comments on this issue in a seminar he once gave in which he referred to Michel Foucault (whom he classed as a “good friend”). This is Searle’s account of the conversation:

Searle“Why the hell do you write so badly?”
Foucault“Look. If I wrote as clearly as you do, people in Paris wouldn’t take me seriously. They’d think that I was childlike. Naive.”

Searle went on to say:

“You’ve got to be 10% incomprehensible otherwise people won’t think it’s deep. They won’t think you’re a profound philosopher.”

Many commentators have also accused these philosophers of hiding mundane or trite ideas under pretentious prose. Others have even said that “nothing is hidden” because effectively there’s nothing to hide. Or as Professor Hugh Mellor (at Cambridge University) said about Jacques Derrida: this stuff is “bullshit”. Mellor also wrote:

“That is much latter work which seems to be wilfully obscure. If you spell out these later doctrines plainly, it becomes clear that most of them, if not false, are just trivial.”

Mellor then added that Derrida “goes in for mystery-mongering about trivial truisms”. Having said that, before those words Mellor had also said that “some of Derrida’s early work was interesting and serious”. However, “this isn’t the work he has become famous for”.

Of course a lot of analytic philosophy is also “trivial”.

It’s also the case that some analytic philosophers hide their triviality under prose which is “wilfully obscure”. Then again, such analytic philosophy won’t be trivial or wilfully obscure in the same way in which Derrida’s later work is. That is, it won’t be poetic, vague and oracular. Instead, analytic triviality is hidden within forests of jargon, schema, symbolic letters, footnotes, references, “backward Es” (to quote Hilary Putnam), words like ceteris paribus and the like. In other words, basic analytic academic prose will be used to hide the trivialities. In Derrida’s case it’s a different kind of obscurity; though, in the continental tradition, it can be equally academic.

Hugh Mellor also said that some of Derrida’s “doctrines” are “simply false”. Well, Mellor most certainly must believe exactly the same thing about many doctrines offered up by analytic philosophers. However, I suppose that he must also believe that even though such doctrines are false, they aren’t also “trivial”. And my bet is that he certainly won’t see them as being examples of what he calls “mystery-mongering”.

Deconstruction


Despite Gary Gutting saying that Derrida and others deal in “obscurity” and don’t make any effort to communicate to those outside their own particular philosophical cults, he nonetheless does claim to understand one of Derrida’s positions: namely, that “every concept deconstructs itself”.

Now whether or not this is true (or whether or not it can be true), this belief in self-deconstructing concepts may partly explain Derrida’s obscurity or unclarity. After all, if all concepts do indeed deconstruct themselves, then isn’t that f̶a̶c̶t̶ (sous rature!) going to be reflected in Derrida’s prose itself? Or, to be more accurate, if Derrida believed that concepts deconstruct themselves, then he might have wanted to display that reality within his philosophical prose. Indeed isn’t that precisely what Derrida did attempt to do? In other words, since Derrida (at least at one point in his career) emphasised what he called philosophical and/or linguistic “play” (i.e., “the play of the sign”), then it seems that Derrida himself might have embraced obscurity or at least arcane play.

Gutting also says that French philosophers believes that “contradictions can never be avoided”. Here again, if some French philosophers really do believe this, then surely they’re going to display (or reflect) that t̶r̶u̶t̶h̶ in their philosophical prose. And won’t that very acknowledgement and highlighting of philosophy’s (or language’s) inherent contradictions inevitably lead to an unclear or even obscure prose style?

On the other hand, one can indeed have Mellor’s “trivial truisms” which are expressed in a prose which is bizarre and strange. This suggests, then, that obscurity and unclarity are sometimes chosen, rather than forced upon a philosopher by either the world or by inherent philosophical contradictions. Then again, it can be argued that even if a philosopher stresses and acknowledges such inescapable contradictions, it’s still possible to do so in a prose which isn’t obscure. Think here of the philosopher Graham Priest who upholds a dialethic position on logic and philosophy in which what he calls “contradictories” and “inconsistencies” are acknowledged and even embraced. Nonetheless, all this is carried out in a prose which is both clear and unpretentious. Having said that, a distinction can be made here between embracing and acknowledging contradictories and actually displaying them in one’s prose. In addition, physicists who concentrate on quantum mechanics can also express their physics in a prose which is clear and unpretentious. In this case — and perhaps in Priest’s too — it is the world (nature) itself which is bizarre and strange, not the prose which describes that bizarre and strange world.

Conclusion


It’s not a surprise that “debate” between analytic philosophers and other analytic philosophers is “easier” than debate “between analytic philosophers and continental philosophers” (as mentioned in the Glock passage above). After all, debate between biologists and physicists is harder than between physicists and physicists. Then again, you’d expect — prima facie — that a debate between analytic philosophers and continental philosophers would be easier than between biologists and physicists because, after all, we’re talking about philosophers debating with other philosophers here (even if from different traditions). Having said that, both biologists and physicists are scientists — so the same can be said about them.

At it’s most extreme, if analytic philosophers and continental philosophers use different tools and technical terms, do philosophy in a different way, and don’t even discuss the same issues, then it’s not a surprise that there’s a lack of debate between the two traditions. As it is, however, things aren’t always this bad. Apart from the fact that some philosophers on the continent have also been analytic philosophers, even when they aren’t some of the issues both traditions have discussed have indeed been the same. However, it’s still the case that these same issues have been — and still are — discussed in very different ways.

*********************************

Note:

(1) There are of course many other areas of this subject which might have been discussed.

For example, the following quote from Federico Amadeo has enough material in it for an entire piece. (Incidentally, this passage is a reaction to the words of John Searle quoted above.) So I’ll quote it in full as food for thought:

“I agree that the sort of literature in question has awful prose and it could be clearer. However, I’ve become weary of the way much of the analytic tradition fetishizes ‘clarity’. This is how they subject themselves to criticism of their own: the focus on thinking about aspects of the world that are the most intelligible. But the most intelligible isn’t necessarily the most important. There’s something extremely artificial about avoiding ambiguity at all costs, as language itself is ambiguous. If in considering the world in its most meaningful depths we find obstacles within the language to express it, must we give up the world? A little ambiguity is inevitable, perhaps even desirable. If continental philosophy sins in obscurantism, analytic philosophy sins in superficiality.”

The obvious response to Federico Amedeo is that some (or much) continental philosophy is both obscurantist and superficial. In parallel, some (if not much) analytic philosophy is both clear and deep. So is Amadeo assuming some kind of strong link between obscurantism and a lack of superficiality? Similarly, does he believe that clarity often (or even always) comes along with superficiality?

Amadeo also says that “language itself is ambiguous”. Yet that’s to ignore much of what’s been said in the article above about the philosophers who indulge in deliberate (or intentional) ambiguity — for whatever reasons. Unless, of course, that ambiguity isn’t deliberate and is simply a result of philosophical responses to “the world in its most meaningful depths”. So is Amadeo’s poetic phrase itself an example of the meaningfully deep and non-superficial?

In addition, what is it to “fetishize clarity”? Is seeing clarity as being of vital importance automatically to fetishize it? Do other philosophers fetishize unclarity and arcane prose?

[I can be found on Twitter here.]




Monday, 5 April 2021

Do Gödel’s Theorems Impact Negatively on Physics?


 

The precise relation between Kurt Gödel’s incompleteness theorems and physics has often been discussed by physicists and philosophers. (It’s usually the first incompleteness theorem that’s deemed relevant in this respect.)

So here’s an example (from John M. Myers and F. Hadi Madjid) of what can be taken to be a very tangential (or simply weak) connection between Gödel’s first incompleteness theorem and (quantum) physics:

“We show how Gödel’s first incompleteness theorem has an analog in quantum theory… to do with the set of explanations of given evidence. We prove that the set of explanations of given evidence is uncountably infinite, thereby showing how contact between theory and experiment depends on activity beyond computation and measurement.”

And in the following the science journalist Davide Castelvecchi tells us that physicists have “tried” to apply Gödel’s theorems to “concrete problems”:

“Since the 1990s, theoretical physicists have tried to embody Turing’s work in idealized models of physical phenomena. But ‘the undecidable questions that they spawned did not directly correspond to concrete problems that physicists are interested in’, says Markus Müller, a theoretical physicist at Western University in London, Canada.”

Finally, John D. Barrow (who’ll be discussed later) takes a circumspect position on this issue. He writes:

“We introduce some early considerations of physical and mathematical impossibility as preludes to Gödel’s incompleteness theorems… We argue that there is no reason to expect Gödel incompleteness to handicap the search for a description of the laws of Nature, but we do expect it to limit what we can predict about the outcomes of those laws, and examples are given.”

The Basic Argument

Take these two statements:

1) Mathematical systems contain unprovable statements.
2) Physics uses and depends on mathematics.

Then, from 1) and 2) above, we can construct the following (simple) form of the general argument:

ia) If physics utilizes and depends on mathematics,
ib) and Gödel’s theorems apply to mathematical systems,
ii) then Gödel’s theorems must also apply to physics.

Thus physical theories (or even a/the Theory of Everything) must either be complete and inconsistent or consistent and incomplete. Either way, physics loses… Or does it?

The British-American theoretical and mathematical physicist Freeman Dyson did see a strong link between Gödel incompleteness and physics. Firstly he explained Gödel incompleteness in this way:

“[N]o finite set of axioms and rules of inference can ever encompass the whole of mathematics; given any set of axioms, we can find meaningful mathematical questions which the axioms leave unanswered.”

Dyson then applied his explanation of Gödel incompleteness to “the physical world”:

I hope that an analogous situation exists in the physical world. If my view of the future is correct, it means that the world of physics and astronomy is also inexhaustible; no matter how far we go into the future, there will always be new things happening, new information coming in, new worlds to explore, a constantly expanding domain of life, consciousness, and memory.”

There is indeed a sense in which the word “incompleteness” can be applied to problems in physics. But is this Gödel incompleteness? Not really. The passage above (from Dyson) should really be read as a statement of scientific incompletability, not Gödel incompleteness. (In philosophy there’s also a relevant distinction made between incompletability and insolubilia.) In other words, Dyson’s words aren’t about a Gödelian lack of proof within a system — or even within all systems. They’re about (to use Dyson’s own word) the “inexhaustible” nature of “physics and astronomy”. Yes; the words “inexhaustible” and “incomplete” are near-synonyms; though this still isn’t a reference to Gödel incompleteness. In other words, Gödel incompleteness and scientific incompletability are two very different things.

Another related kind of incompleteness in physics simply applies to the situation in which new observations can’t be accounted for by older theories. Thus the older theories must be incomplete and yet still contain some — or even much — truth. Again, this has no direct or strong connection to Gödel incompleteness.

Besides all that, Freeman Dyson himself admitted that the connections between Gödel’s theorems and physics he highlighted only amount to an “analogous” (i.e., not a logical) link. (See my related piece on Stephen Hawking in which he too uses the derivative word “analogy”: ‘Deflating Gödelised Physics: With Stephen Hawking’.)

The English cosmologist, theoretical physicist and mathematician John D. Barrow also put the case against a thoroughly Gödelised physics in the following:

“[I]t is by no means obvious that Gödel places any straightforward limit upon the overall scope of physics to understand the nature of the Universe just because physics makes use of mathematics.”

Here we can highlight the word “understand”. To put what I believe is Barrow’s position in a simple statement:

Scientific understanding doesn’t require Gödel completeness.

All this may simply mean that an understanding of a physical theory — even a full understanding of a physical theory — isn’t affected by Gödel’s theorems. (That, of course, begs the question as to what scientific understanding is.) It may also mean that we can describe (or explain) a physical theory (or nature itself) without the possibility of Gödel incompleteness having any substantive effect on that description or explanation. And perhaps that’s because Gödel incompleteness would only be relevant to the mathematics required to explain or describe Nature — or, more likely, any aspect of Nature.

On that last point.

John Barrow also makes the technical point that even taking into consideration the necessary and vital role mathematics plays in physics, it may still be the case that:

“mathematics Nature makes use of may be smaller and simpler than is needed for incompleteness and [the] undecidable to rear their heads”.

This is clearly a statement that Gödel incompleteness doesn’t apply to all mathematics. And that mathematical remainder may be all that’s required for physics.

Do Gödel’s Theorems Have a Negative Impact on Physics?

So is Gödel incompleteness really a negative conclusion for physics? Well, any answer to that question will obviously depend on a whole host of factors.

As just stated, physics may not require the entirety of mathematics. Moreover, it may require only those parts of mathematics which aren’t affected by Gödel’s theorems. And even if Gödel’s theorems do somehow affect the mathematics employed in physics, then that may still not be (strongly) detrimental to physics as a whole.

To sum all this up in three statements:

1) Physics may not (or does not) utilise the entirety of mathematics.
2) Physics may only utilise those parts of mathematics which aren’t affected by Gödel’s theorems.
3) Physics may survive — or even thrive — even if it 
is to some degree affected by Gödel’s theorems.

The following is another argument that’s nonetheless related to the three statements above:

i) Physics doesn’t need (or have) strict proofs.
ii) Gödel’s first incompleteness theorem is primarily about proof — or about the distinction between proof and truth.
iii) Therefore that most important aspect of Gödel’s first theorem may not be 
directly applicable to physics.

On the other hand, a (weak) Gödelian argument can be put this way:

i) Mathematical systems contain unprovable statements.
ii) Physics is based on mathematics.
iii) Therefore physics won’t be able to discover “everything that is true”.

Discovering everything isn’t the same thing as proving everything. And what sort of claim (or aim) is it any way to “discover everything”?

Physics doesn’t — strictly speaking — need proofs. However, the mathematics included in physics may well need proof. So do the lack of proofs of mathematical systems glide over to physical theories?

What’s more and as already stated, the fact is that only certain aspects of mathematics are applied to physical reality. And — so it’s argued - those aspects are decidable (or computable).

Physical Laws as Axioms?

Perhaps taking the laws of physics as the exact equivalents of logical and mathematical axioms is at the root of this Gödelian problem. After all, if one takes some given physical laws as axioms, then - somewhere further down the line - there may well be Gödel incompleteness and/or inconsistency.

It’s true that physical laws can be used as axioms or be given an axiomatic status. Indeed just about anything can be used as an axion — any statement, phrase, equation, etc. (For example, the science writer Philip Ball says that the “collapse” of the wave functions is — often tacitly — deemed “axiomatic” in that physicists usually “accept [it] with no questions asked”.)

Yet it’s still the case that physical laws aren’t self-evident or “intuitively acceptable”. One reason for this is that physical laws are things that couldn’t — even in principle — be intuitively obvious because intuitions don’t apply to the laws (even if deemed axiomatic) which generate and govern all the theories and statements of physics. (Particularly, theories or statements about things at the cosmological and quantum scales.) Added to that, if physical laws are axioms, and what we derive from these laws are theorems, then what about the unpredictable consequences (or predictions) which we derive from our axiomatic physical laws?

Moreover, if physical laws were purely and strictly like axioms, then we could move from

“incontestable premises [i.e., axiomatic laws] to an acceptable conclusion [i.e., prediction or theory] via an impeccable rule of inference”.

Yet can that statement (i.e., minus the words in square brackets) be fully applied to physical laws and their resultant theorems? Indeed is it even correct to use the word “axiom” at all in physics? That is, can any law of physics ever be as simple and pure as an axiom in a logical or mathematical system?

There’s another consequence of this Gödelian way of thinking.

Gödel’s theorems require that the axioms of a system be “listable”. Can it be said that all the laws of physics are (or could be) listable? And even if they were listable, would the theorems which we derive from such physical laws bear a strong resemblance to the theorems which are derived from the axioms of a logical or a mathematical system?

In other words, do we have entailment (or strict deduction) from physical axioms (or laws) to physical theorems? And do we have either metaphysical or logical entailment when it comes to physical laws and the predictions, experiments and observations (i.e., the quasi-theorems) which are derived from them?

[I can be found on Twitter here.]

Tuesday, 30 March 2021

Both Consciousness & Quantum Mechanics are Sexy… So Let’s Join Them Together!


 There are some people who drop the words “quantum mechanics” into almost all scientific and philosophical conversations. More relevantly, the words (to cite just two examples) “quantum dualism” (i.e., in the Cartesian — not Niels Bohr’s complementarity — sense) and “quantum coherence” also feature strongly in debates about consciousness.

Quantum physics is sexy and exotic. It’s also counter-intuitive. Hence the appeal.

It’s here that I’ll rely primarily on the science writer John Horgan’s interviews with various scientists and philosophers in his excellent book The End of Science.

Quantum mechanics is so sexy that it even explains free will and, therefore, mind-body dualism. Or at least the Australian neurophysiologist and philosopher John Eccles (who won the Noble Prize in 1963) believed so. In concrete terms, Eccles (who died in 1997 — a year or so after Horgan’s interview) claimed that the mind (or self) must

“exert its influence over the brain by ‘deciding’ which neuron will fire and which will not”.

Yet, despite all that neuroscience (or physical theory), John Eccles still conceded: “We have no proof of any of this.” So perhaps what was truly motivating Eccles (as John Horgan suggests) is his aversion to what he called “cheap materialism”. Indeed Eccles classed himself as a “religious person”. Moreover, he added:

“[T]he very nature of the mind is the same as the nature of life. It’s a divine creation.”

So whereas as Eccles believed that quantum mechanics explains free will, so the mathematical physicist Roger Penrose believes that it explains consciousness itself. In fact the two theories tie together (if in a fairly vague way).

For Eccles, quantum indeterminism (or, in his case, the superposition of physical states at the synapses of a neurone) is explained by the “action” of the self or mind. With Penrose, the self is kept out of the picture; though quantum indeterminism is kept in. More specifically:

“Penrose conjectured that microtubules perform non-deterministic, quasi-quantum computations that somehow give rise to consciousness.”

But what of the scientific sceptics who play down quantum mechanics — at least when it comes to consciousness and mind? John Horgan had this to say on the matter:

“There is one issue on which Crick, Edelman, and indeed almost all neuroscientists agree: the properties of the mind do not depend in any crucial way on quantum mechanics.”

Note here that it’s neuroscientists who “agree” on this; not philosophers, psychologists, physicists and others. Yet it’s neuroscientists who prod and probe into the the brain. So, at least on the surface, it would seem that it’s neuroscientists who should know what they’re talking about. Sure, philosophical and conceptual issues will impinge on what they claim; though surely they’re the best people to ask when it come to this question:

Do the mind and consciousness depend in any crucial way on quantum mechanics?

So how could, say, a philosopher or a psychologist answer that question?

Yet the obvious point here is that neuroscientists don’t prod and probe at the quantum level. Indeed many (i.e., not all!) neuroscientists may be more or less illiterate when it comes to quantum mechanics. So no wonder many of them ignore the facts and realities of quantum mechanics; or, at the very least, play them down.

Having said all that, Horgan does tell us that the molecular biologist and neuroscientist Francis Crick did believe that

“some neural equivalent of Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle might restrict our ability to trace the brain’s activity in minute detail”.

Sure; that was a very minor admission from Crick.

In a certain — even in a strong — sense it’s certainly the case that the brain itself (if not consciousness) does depend on quantum mechanics. Yet that’s simply because every physical object and physical event depends on quantum mechanics. That is, the micro-constituents of all physical objects and events are ultimately made up of particles, forces and fields that have no meaning outside of the theoretical ambit of quantum mechanics.

So this is a good place to take a look at Daniel Dennett’s quantum car.

Daniel Dennett’s Quantum Car

Daniel Dennett driving his quantum car.

The American philosopher Daniel Dennett made these points:

“Most biologists think that quantum effects all just cancel out in the brain, that there’s no reason to think they’re harnessed in any way. Of course they’re there; quantum effects are there in your car, your watch, and your computer. But most things — most macroscopic objects — are, as it were, oblivious to quantum effects. They don’t amplify them; they don’t hinge on them. Roger [Penrose] thinks that the brain somehow exploits quantum effects.”

In other words:

Sure; there are quantum happenings in the brain as a whole or in neurons. Then again, there are quantum happenings in your car, watch and television.

It may be true that in order for Dennett’s car to be a car, it doesn’t depend on the quantum effects which are occurring inside it. However, why should that also be true of the brain and its relation to mind or to consciousness? The nature and functioning of a car (or watch) is very different to the reality and functioning of the brain and its relation to consciousness. A car is (to use Dennett’s word) “oblivious” to the quantum effects inside — though only if it is treated qua car! However, it’s of course the case that a car can also be analysed as a medium of quantum effects; though not, again, qua car.

Then again, it is strictly true that a car — even qua car — doesn’t depend on quantum effects/events/conditions? Surely it does so in the simple sense that if there were no quantum effects/events/conditions, then there would be no car either. And, yes, it’s true that this also applies to literally all other physical objects — including biological and artificial objects.

Of course we’ll now need to know exactly why “quantum effects” don’t transfer to the brain as a whole. Alternatively, why aren’t quantum effects (to use Dennett’s words) “amplified” and “exploited” by the brain? More specifically, we’ll need to know why such things don’t cause (or bring about) mental phenomena or consciousness. In other words:

Why is there such a sharp dividing line between Dennett’s quantum effects in the brain (or in neurons) and consciousness itself?

Surely there can’t be such a neat and tiny cut-off point (an — as it were - Heisenberg cut) between these two worlds. Then again, it’s not logically absurd to argue that there is indeed such a clear cut-off point.

Large-Scale Quantum Effects

Yet, despite all the above, the mathematical physicist Roger Penrose argues (as do many biologists and physicists) that quantum effects/events/conditions do indeed have an effect on the large scale. He makes that point plain in the following passage:

“The very existence of solid bodies, the strengths and physical properties of materials, the nature of chemistry, the colours of substances, the phenomena of freezing and boiling, the reliability of inheritance — these, and many other familiar properties, require the quantum theory for their explanations.”

It can now be argued that even though these “solid bodies” and “materials” do “require the quantum theory for their explanations”; that doesn’t also automatically mean that such quantum effects are in any way substantive. It simply means that quantum mechanics is a part of the whole picture (as in the case of Dennett’s car). So, in the sense of supplying a complete picture of such bodies and materials — then, yes, of course quantum theory will be required.

Yet Dennett himself does accept that quantum events/effects/conditions/etc. influence (or affect) the large scale. For example, he says that quantum mechanics is

“stunningly successful at predicting and explaining many phenomena, including everyday phenomena such as the reflection and refraction of lights, and the operation of the proteins in our retinas that permit us to see”.

Of course it may still be the case that because

quantum mechanics can (to use Penrose’s words) “predict and explain” such things as (to use Dennett’s words) “the reflection and refraction of lights”

that this doesn’t also mean that

quantum mechanics fully accounts for these things.

…. Then again, surely it does mean that!

And if all this is true of the aforementioned light and protein molecules, then why can’t it also be true of the brain and consciousness? Of course the parallels between

quantum mechanics and the reflection and refraction of light

and

quantum mechanics and the mind (or consciousness)

may not be parallel (or equivalent) in every respect. However, surely that wouldn’t matter too much in this case. What matters is whether or not quantum mechanics is having an impact on the brain and therefore on the mind (or consciousness). It doesn’t need to be the case that quantum mechanics does so in precisely the same way in which it impacts on (to use Penrose’s words again)

“solid bodies, the strengths and physical properties of materials, the nature of chemistry, the colours of substances, the phenomena of freezing and boiling, the reliability of inheritance”.

To repeat: perhaps the quantum-mechanical explanations of these phenomena are at a different level to actually arguing that quantum-mechanical events actually bring about, cause or even constitute such phenomena. Again, is there a difference between

quantum mechanics being part of the explanation of consciousness (i.e., because quantum happenings occur within neurons, etc.)

and

quantum-mechanical effects/events/states bringing about or constituting consciousness

Surely if quantum mechanics can explain consciousness, then it may be because quantum-mechanical events/effects/conditions also bring about or actually constitute consciousness.

Conclusion: The Sexy Mystery of Consciousness

Kurt Gödel’s theorems are a helpful way to sum things up here.

Gödel’s theorems are also sexy. They’re applied to domains to which they shouldn’t (it can be argued) be applied. That is, theorems which were originally and primarily about mathematical systems are now applied left, right and centre. Nonetheless, since physics depends so heavily on mathematics, then perhaps there is something to the many connections which are made between Gödel’s theorems and everything else under the sun.

As for the sex appeal of quantum mechanics itself, John Horgan writes:

“[Francis] Crick’s partner Christof Koch summed up the quantum-consciousness thesis in a syllogism: Quantum mechanics is mysterious, and consciousness is mysterious. Q.E.D.: quantum mechanics and consciousness must be related.”

More specifically, the obvious question is:

Why do (or would) non-determinism (or acausality), quantum computations, quantum coherence, etc. give rise to consciousness and the “what it is like” to, say, smell a rose?

Is it this argument again? -

i) Consciousness is mysterious.
ii) Quantum mechanics is mysterious.
iii) Therefore consciousness and quantum mechanics simply
must be related.

Could it be that some people believe the above simply because there are no other conclusive answers at present? Thus do they also believe this must be answer? Yet if that were the case, then many other outrageous — or simply radical — things may be the answer too. So why is this quantum stuff more feasible than (as the philosopher Patricia Churchland put it) “pixie dust in the synapses” when it comes to explaining consciousness?

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