Thursday, 6 August 2015

Endless Extrinsic & Intrinsic Properties





Endless Extrinsic & Intrinsic Properties

The thing about extrinsic properties is that they appear to be indefinite - or even infinite - in number. One could argue, then, that if extrinsic properties are indeed indefinite in number, then what's the point of the classification? Wouldn't you need to make a somewhat arbitrary (or random) choice as to which ones to include and exclude?

For example, Mary's being a friend of John is an extrinsic property of Mary. Then again, Mary's being near a sewage works is also an extrinsic feature of Mary.

Similarly, if having a mass of 200kg is an intrinsic feature of object a, then having a mass of 201kg can be an intrinsic feature of object b. What's more, object a may have a intrinsic mass of 200kg at time t and an intrinsic mass of 2001kg at t2. Thus a and b may change positions when it comes to their intrinsic masses.

Take this other problem.

Why would Mary's extrinsic property of being related to John be deemed more important than Mary's having a daily causal relations with professors? In fact, in order to decipher which extrinsic properties are important/fundamental and which aren't, we'd surely be raising the former to the category of intrinsic properties. Thus the closer extrinsic properties come to being important/fundamental, the more they resemble intrinsic properties.

Can we invert this argument by doing the same with intrinsic properties? Are there levels of intrinsicality (as it were) between intrinsic properties?

In other words, are some intrinsic properties more fundamental/important than others? And if that's the case, then perhaps some intrinsic properties are closer to fundamental/important extrinsic properties than to other intrinsic properties. So much so that they may as well be classified as extrinsic properties.

Similarly (as already said) with fundamental/important extrinsic properties, they too may as well be classified as intrinsic properties.

Or, better still, why not jettison the intrinsic/extrinsic distinction altogether and stick with the fundamental/not-fundamental (or important/not-important) distinction instead (as Quine once did in relation to essential properties)?

Endless Relational Properties

You have to also wonder what's the point of some relational properties; just as we've just wondered about the nature of some extrinsic properties.

For example, take the relational human property having more cells than fingers. Now that can be seen not only as a relational property, but also as an intrinsic property in that any all human beings will have the property having more cells than fingers. (That's because there must be more cells in one finger than there are fingers.) However, if it's a unprofitable relational property, then surely it's even more unprofitable as a intrinsic relational property.

Despite saying that, we can deny the property having more cells than fingers its intrinsic nature by saying that both fingers (of whatever number) and cells (of whatever number) aren't themselves intrinsic in the first place. Thus the relation between the two can't be deemed intrinsic either. And here, yet again, is another good reason to reject the intrinsic-extrinsic (or, in this case, intrinsic/relational) distinction entirely.

Here we can add that having X as a “proper part” is also seen as being intrinsic by some philosophers. Thus both fingers and cells can be deemed to be proper parts of human beings (or homo sapiens). If they are, then perhaps they're also intrinsic in nature.

Are they relational?

Well, a human being certainly has some kind of relation to his or her own fingers or cells. Though is it right to call this an intrinsically relational property? Isn't it best to say that fingers or cells are part of the package which constitute a human being? What does it mean to say that a human - or even a person - has a (intrinsic) relation to his cells or fingers? Sure, there's some kinds of causal relations that can be established between a human being and his/her cells and fingers; though is there an intrinsic (essential) relation?

In that case, what is related to what?

If we take away fingers, cells and similar properties, what would be left of a human being so that it could have a relation to what remains? What I mean by that is if one takes away all these kinds of properties, perhaps there's no human being left. And if that's the case, then it may not make sense to speak of a human being having a relation to such things as his cells or fingers. It would certainly make the notion of an intrinsic relation between such proper parts and a human being problematic.
 

Against David Lewis's Intrinsic Properties

American philosopher David Lewis (1941–2001) wrote: “A thing has its intrinsic properties in virtue of the way that thing itself, and nothing else, is.”

[All the quotes from David Lewis come from his papers ‘Extrinsic Properties’ (1982) and ‘Redefining ‘intrinsic’’ (2001).]

****************************

At first sight, the word “intrinsic” appears to be a virtual — or even literal — synonym of the word “essential”. Indeed it’s tempting to use the latter — rather than former — word. However, as often happens in analytic philosophy, there are indeed (slight?) differences between these two ontological categories. Or, at the very least, there are different definitions of the words “intrinsic property” and “essential property”. Nonetheless, it can still be said that the two categories are very-closely related. To put that another way: this (possibly) insubstantial or even empty (to use Derrida’s term) “sign-substitution” of “intrinsic” for “essential” would never have happened if essentialism and anti-essentialism had never been such important parts of the Western philosophical tradition.

In any case, some metaphysicians tell us that there’s a difference between properties which object O has independently of any external factors acting upon it (i.e., intrinsic properties) and O’s properties which are deemed to be the way they regardless of what’s external to it (i.e., essential properties). Despite saying that, can’t that account of intrinsic properties also be applied to essential properties? In addition, can’t we also say that essential properties are those properties which are independent of any — or all — external factors?

If all that’s the case, then what has happened here isn’t the discovery of another ontological category: it’s a new way of accounting for an old ontological category. That is, when essential properties are defined in such a way as to emphasise their independence from all external factors, then those properties become intrinsic in nature — even though they’re essentially the same as essential properties! Again, the only things that seems to have changed are the new technical terms and their definitions.

David Lewis on Intrinsic Properties

This is David Lewis’s own definition of intrinsic properties from 1982:

“A thing has its intrinsic properties in virtue of the way that thing itself, and nothing else, is.”

Could there ever be such a state as “the way that a thing itself []is” regardless of literally everything else? That is, regardless of its (actual, not possible) relations to properties/objects, events, conditions, etc. which are (as it were) outside itself; as well as regardless of its place in time and space?

This position can be taken to its most extreme (or perhaps ridiculous) in the following statement:

Object O would still have intrinsic property P if after the world around it disappeared, O would still have P.

(This is a little like Max Black’s two-sphere universe; as discussed in his paper ‘The Identity of Indiscernibles of 1952.)

Can we say that there are intrinsic properties which still have vital (or important) relations to extrinsic properties? Alternatively: object O’s extrinsic proprieties may determine — to some extent at least —its intrinsic properties. However, it may be countered that because objects are such-and-such-a-way, then they can only be determined (or affected) in particular ways precisely because they have the intrinsic properties which they do have. So that may mean that there are mutual relations between intrinsic and extrinsic properties. Indeed, as just stated, there may not even be a “way” an object is regardless of its relations to other things or to extrinsic properties.

David Lewis also cited “internal structure” as being intrinsic to objects. Yet if such a structure is defined in terms of its relations, then surely it must also be defined (at least partly) in terms of extrinsic properties. This would mean that Lewis’s internal structure would also be defined — or even constituted — by its relations to extrinsic properties.

That would also mean that internal structures determine an object’s relations and therefore also determine the extrinsic properties themselves. Then again, it can also be argued that external properties determine internal structures.

Here again the boundaries between what is intrinsic and what is extrinsic seems to be somewhat blurred.

Of course it can now be asked what would be the metaphysical point of a Lewisian internal structure if it weren’t primarily a crutch (or framework) for intrinsic properties which have no such relations at all to external properties.

Different Surroundings and Shape

David Lewis claimed something about an intrinsic property which isn’t entirely helpful unless one’s already sure what a property actually is. He wrote:

[] If something has an intrinsic property, then so does any perfect duplicate of that thing; whereas duplicates situated in different surroundings will differ in their extrinsic properties.”

The problem with that definition (a mere stipulative definition?) is that if the very same “thing” is in “different surroundings”, then it may also have different intrinsic properties to the ones it had in its previous surroundings (what Lewis called “temporary intrinsics”). To put that more clearly:

1) Object O has set of intrinsic properties I¹ in surrounding S.
2) Object O has set of intrinsic properties I² in surrounding S².

To put that in more basic words: object O may change its intrinsic properties (not only its extrinsic properties) in different places. And that, surely, will depend on its relations to other objects; as well its relations to (external) properties.

Lewis also argued that the shapes of objects are intrinsic to such objects. However, don’t the shapes of many — or all — objects change through time?

One (as it were) shape-changer is space itself.

More correctly, objects with mass (at least to some minute degree in many cases ) curve spacetime and spacetime shapes objects. Thus shape will depend on the curvature of space in a specific region. What’s more, the curvature of space will be continuously working as a shape-changer.

But what if spacetime never has an impact on the shape of (as J.L. Austin put it) “medium-sized dry goods”? That said, the curvature of space does indeed have an impact on how such objects travel through space (as well as vice versa); though even here the impact is minuscule. (Massive objects, such as the earth, are a different matter.)

So what about particles and other micro-phenomena? Is it the case that the curvature of space doesn’t have any impact at the quantum level? (This ties in with the issue of quantum gravity.)

In any case, what if object 0’s shape at time t¹ is intrinsic and object O’s (slightly different) shape at t² is also intrinsic to it? However, if O’s shape were always changing, at least one of its intrinsic properties would also be changing. That’s because it would have two supposedly intrinsic shapes at two different times. And that seems to go against the notion of intrinsicality.

Intrinsic Relations

An interesting addition to the notion of intrinsic properties would be the category of intrinsic relations.

Intrinsic relations are said to determine — or even constitute — the nature of objects. In other words, they’re fundamental (why not say essential?) to the objects which have them.

This is primarily the case because it can be argued that object O’s intrinsic relations to other objects (or set/s of properties) are actually constitutive of what O actually is. So aren’t an object’s relations constitutive — or part — of that object’s fundamental (or essential) nature?

For example, the property [being two miles away from] can be deemed to be an intrinsic relation between two objects. Similarly, the property [being the same species as] can be seen that way too.

Clearly, if object O is two miles away from another object, then that other object must also be two miles away from O. So, in this case at least, the property [two miles away from] is symmetrical in regards to O and that other object.

Similarly with the property [being the same species as]. If object O is the same species as another object, then that other object must be the same species as O.

So can relational properties really be deemed to be intrinsic?

It may seem counterintuitive (to some) to argue that the relation [being two miles away from] could be an intrinsic property of object O. Indeed can it even be any kind of property at all?…

What about the property [being the same species as]?

Surely in the case of object O we can say that its being a member of species S is intrinsic. However, why should we say the same about the property [being the same species as] itself? That seems to be a needless addition to one’s ontology.

In any case, it can be argued that a pair of subatomic particles can display (or partake of) intrinsic relations.

For example, say that electron a and proton b (always?) stand in relation R to one another. Thus:

R is an intrinsic relation between a and b iff a (always) stands in R to b and b (always) stands in R to a.

That relation will also determine the natures of both a and b. In fact it can be argued that the intrinsic relation (or mutual relations) is (or are) actually constitutive of the natures of both a and b.

Electron a and proton b (or any other pair of objects), on the other hand, may also be related to all sorts of other objects, properties or events which don’t help constitute their fundamental natures or intrinsic properties.

In ontic structural realism, for example, this category of intrinsic relations is certainly taken to be true of subatomic particles (though ontic structural realists neither use that term nor accept it). Yet, perhaps ironically, this leads ontic structural realists to deny that there are any (only?) subatomic “things” at all (i.e., as in “every thing must go”).

So could all this be applied to macro-objects such as persons or trees too?

And need we follow the ontic structural realists in denying that there are things (or objects) simply because they always have (fundamental?) relations to — or indeed are partly constituted by — other objects, events, external properties, etc?

Lewis also mentioned a “perfect duplicate”.

Duplicates?

According to Lewis, if there were a perfect duplicate of Davy Boy, then that duplicate and Davy Boy would share the same intrinsic properties.

This means that the idea of a perfect duplicate sharing all intrinsic properties is helpful for a possible-worlds theory in which counterparts share such intrinsic properties. Thus:

If objects a and b are duplicates, then they must share all their intrinsic properties (i.e., even if they have different extrinsic properties).

It’s also argued that objects and even persons must have intrinsic properties in order to exist — over time — as the objects and persons that they are. In other words, if there were no intrinsic properties, then a given object or person would only last for a second… or even less… and would therefore not be a object or person at all.

What’s more, if there were a duplicate of Davy Boy, wouldn’t that duplicate also share all his extrinsic properties? To put that more simply: wouldn’t he (or it) share all his properties by virtue of him (or it) being a duplicate? After all, on Lewis’s picture, counterparts only duplicate the intrinsic (or essential) properties of the objects they’re counterparts of.

Yet wouldn’t all that be to simply assume certain things?

Counterpart theory is (in part) used to distinguish intrinsic from extrinsic properties. However, in order to have duplicates one must already be committed to intrinsic properties in order to define — or even understand — what it is that’s being duplicated. So rather than discovering intrinsic properties through counterpart (or duplicate) theory, one must actually assume them. Moreover, not only is the existence (or reality) of intrinsic properties assumed, so is what is and what isn’t an intrinsic property.

To sum up some of the above in argument form:

i) If object O changes its intrinsic properties in (to use Lewis’s words) “different surroundings”
ii) then any distinction between intrinsic and extrinsic properties (at least in the case of
O) will be difficult (or even impossible) to make.
iii) Therefore get rid of the distinction between intrinsic & extrinsic properties entirely.

There’s an additional way of looking at conclusion iii) above. Thus:

i) If the intrinsic/extrinsic distinction fails for objects (or Lewis’s things),
ii) and the having of intrinsic properties is said to be fundamental for the
discernibility, individuation, etc. of objects,
iii) then the ontological reality of objects itself may be questioned.

Surely the conclusion to all this is that it’s very hard to distinguish intrinsic from extrinsic properties. And, if that’s the case, then why not give up on the distinction altogether?


(*) See also: ‘Rearrangement of Particles: Reply to Lowe’ (1988)




Friday, 31 July 2015

Patricia Churchland vs. the Functionalists


Patricia Churchland has a problem with the fact that many functionalists have “ignored neuroscience”. Indeed they've also “rejected reductionism” (1986). However, I suspect that this is much less true today than it was when Churchland wrote those words in 1986.

Not only do many functionalists ignore neuroscience, they also take some pride in doing so. Or, as Churchland surmises, functionalists may think that

the less known about the actual pumps and pulleys of the embodiment of mental life, the better, for the less there is to clutter up one's functionally oriented research” (1986).

I would say that the primary reason for this functionalist ignorance of all things neuroscientific is that functionalists believe that “computational (functional) psychology” can only then be seen as an “autonomous science”. They may believe that if neuroscience had the last word on these matters (or if it were all a question of reduction in the end), then such functionalists wouldn't really have any territory they could call their own.

Of course one can be this kind of functionalist and still be a physicalist. Though can functionalists also be reductionists? Yes, in principle; though primarily because of the multiple realizability argument (which is tackled later), that would rarely be the case. In principle, a functionalist could also know lots of neuroscience and still not find his mind “cluttered up” (as Churchland puts it). Indeed he may know loads of neuroscience and argue that all the cognitive sciences should still be seen as autonomous.

According to Churchland, Zenon Pylyshyn puts the case for this neat division of labour thus:

i) “... cognitive scientists will figure out the functional/cognitive...”

ii) “... neuroscientists can untangle the underlying physical devices that instantiate the cognitive 'program'...” (1986)

At first glance it simply seems to be counter-productive to argue that these two departments should never interact (or clutter each other up). It depends, though, on whether that separation is complete or not. And Churchland herself says that it's “doubtful” that “anyone really holds that extreme version of the research ideology” (1986). Nonetheless, Churchland does go on to say that “certainly milder versions [of this approach] have won considerable sympathy”. And she too says that the “autonomy of psychology is the rationale” behind that.

Reductionism

Just as Churchland thinks that it's a bad idea for functionalists or psychologists to ignore neuroscience, so she also thinks it's an equally bad idea for neuroscientists (or eliminative materialists) to ignore functionalism or psychology. She writes:

Neuroscientists would be silly to make a point of ignoring psychological data... just as psychologists would be silly to make a point of ignoring all neurobiological data.” (1994)

Indeed if pressed (or looking from the outside looking in) it would seem almost impossible for either neuroscientists to ignore psychology or for psychologists to ignore neuroscience. Though, when one looks at the history, one quickly sees that this was indeed the case. Perhaps the most obvious example was the “black box” position adopted by behaviourists from the 1920s to the 1960s. (This was the position in which the mind-brain was simply seen as a receptacle for stimulations or the locus of various inputs and outputs.)

Churchland continues by mollifying psychologists about that scareword - “reductionism”. She tells psychologists or functionalists not to worry. She says that by “reductionist research strategy” she

does not mean that there is something disreputable, unscientific or otherwise unsavoury about high-level descriptions or capacities per se.” (1994)

Churchland says something that may even surprise some philosophers. She argues that reductionism can exist side-by-side with what she calls “high-level descriptions or capacities”.

In any case, reduction is vitally important in many sciences and it comes up with many important results. Nonetheless, it doesn't follow from this that all forms of reductionism have no room for “higher-level descriptions”. Indeed E.O. Wilson put a similar point (though about another area) when he wrote the following:

Major science always deals with reduction and resynthesis of complex systems, across two or three levels of complexity at a step. For example, from quantum physics to the principles of atomic physics, thence reagent chemistry, macromolecular chemistry, molecular biology, and so on – comprising, in general, complexity and reduction, and reduction to resynthesis of complexity, in repeated sweeps.”

Churchland herself says that

research techniques reveal structural organisation at many strata: the biochemical level; then the level of the membrane, the single cell, and the circuit; and perhaps yet other levels, such as brain subsystems, brain systems, brain maps, and the whole central nervous system” (1989).

Nonetheless, E.O. Wilson is of course well aware that the “very word 'reductionism'” has a “sterile and invasive ring, like a scalpel or catheter”. He goes on to say that the

[c]ritics of science sometimes portray reductionism as an obsessional disorder, declining towards a terminal stage one writer recently dubbed 'reductive megalomania'” (1998).

Multiple Realisability

The main argument against reduction in the philosophy of mind is the multiple realisability argument, as first advanced by Hilary Putnam in 1967 in his 'The Nature of Mental States'.

Churchland tackles this subject and makes a distinction between type-type and token-token reductions. The gist of the argument is that just as various types of mental function or state can be multiply realised, so can various types in physics. Basically, that doesn't make the reduction either problematic or unscientific.

Take the scientific type temperature. Churchland writes:

Notice that what was reduced [in thermodynamics] was not temperature tout court, but temperature of gas. The temperature of a gas is mean kinetic energy of the constituent molecules, but the temperature of a solid is something else again...” (1986)

Thus reduction in this and in other cases is domain-specific. Or as Churchland puts it:

The initial reduction in thermodynamics was relative to a certain domain of phenomena, to wit, gases...”

However, this domain-specificity, according to Churchland, still means that “it was a bona fide reduction for all that”. As a result, did it make thermodynamics a special science (as psychology, economics, etc. are seen as special sciences)? Not according to Churchland. She says that that thermodynamics isn't “independent and separate from physics”.

Does that means that the special sciences aren't “independent and separate from physics” either? Surely it does.

In fact Churchland deals with the case of psychological functionalism and multiple realisability herself. She says that

if human brains and electronic brains both enjoy a certain type of cognitive organisation, we may get two distinct domain-relative reductions” (1986).

Churchland concludes by saying that the “domain-relative” reductions just discussed aren't thereby “phony reductions or reductions manqué”. And it “certainly does not mean that psychology can justify [its] methodological isolation from neuroscience” (1986).

However, just to backtrack a little, it isn't correct to say that Churchland's examples are token-token reductions because, for example, the temperature of a gas (as opposed to that of a solid or of plasma) is still dealing in types. It's just a lower-level type of a higher-level type. That is, we have the lower-level type [the temperature of a gas] and the higher-level type [temperature]. Indeed there will even be sub-types within the type [temperatures of gases] which would include different kinds of gases (though they too would still be type-reductions, not token-reductions).

All this can clearly be distinguished from, say, the attempt to reduce a single person's mental state (qua token) to its physiological and physical reduction-base. Then again, mental types are also problematic, as we will now see.

Some philosophers (i.e., not psychologists or cognitive scientists) do say that such reductions are unscientific – at least the reductions of mental types or functions. This may all depend on whether mental functions can be distinguished form the category of mental states. That is, reductions of mental functions may be less problematic than reductions of mental states. After all, mental functions can be seen as abstracta; whereas that's not the case with all – or any - mental states.

Take, for example, Jaegwon Kim's solution to all this: it seems to be old-style reductionism. Or at least he puts the reductionist position when he says that the “reductionist identifies pain with neural state N”. The question is whether or not pain can be seen functionally. And even if it isn't seen that way, is it still problematic from a scientific point of view?

Kim does argue that pain as a "scientific kind... must go” and that elimination or reduction is the answer. That's primarily because - in Kim's case at least - of the problems associated with what's just been discussed: the multiple realisability of mental kinds in many and various physical substrates.

This is what Kim himself writes on this subject:

.... the frank acknowledgement that MR [multiple realisability] leads to the conclusion that pain as a property or kind must go. Local reduction after all is reduction, and to be reduced is to be eliminated as an independent entity.” (1992)

Kim accepts that pain and mental states/qualities exist: it's just that he doesn't deem them to be scientific kinds or properties.

Functionalist Dualism: Biology & Brains Matter

It's ironic that many of the functionalists and cognitive scientists who accuse all and sundry of being “dualists” should themselves be categorised in this way.

For example, many call John Searle a dualist. Searle, in return, says that those who stress function and ignore biology are effectively creating a non-material Cartesian reality populated with functions or computations (i.e., rather than with “ideas” or “thoughts”). Patricia Churchland, on the other hand, doesn't use the word “dualist”, though she does say the following:

Many philosophers who are materialists to the extent that they doubt the existence of soul-stuff nonetheless believe that psychology ought to be essentially autonomous from neuroscience, and that neuroscience will not contribute significantly to our understanding of perception, language use, thinking, problem solving, and (more generally) cognition.” (1989)

Put that way, it seems like an extreme position. Basically, how could materialists (when it comes to the mind) possibly ignore the brain? It's one thing to say that “psychology is distinct from neuroscience”: it's another thing to say that psychology is “autonomous from neuroscience” and that “neuroscience will not contribute significantly to our understanding” of cognition and whatnot. Sure, the division of labour idea is a good idea. Though to see the “autonomous” in “autonomous science” as being about complete and total independence is surely a bad idea. In fact it's almost like a physicist stressing the independence of physics from mathematics.

Churchland thinks that biology matters. In this, she has the support of many others.

For example, the Nobel laureate Gerald Edelman says that the mind

can only be understood from a biological standpoint, not through physics or computer science or other approaches that ignore the structure of the brain” (1996).

In addition, you perhaps wouldn't ordinarily see Patricia Churchland and John Searle as being bedfellows; though they are on this issue. So it's worth quoting a long passage from Searle which neatly sums up some of the problems with non-biological theories of mind. Searle writes:

I believe we are now at a point where we can address this problem as a biological problem [of consciousness] like any other. For decades research has been impeded by two mistaken views: first, that consciousness is just a special sort of computer program, a special software in the hardware of the brain; and second that consciousness was just a matter of information processing. The right sort of information processing -- or on some views any sort of information processing --- would be sufficient to guarantee consciousness..... it is important to remind ourselves how profoundly anti-biological these views are. On these views brains do not really matter. We just happen to be implemented in brains, but any hardware that could carry the program or process the information would do just as well. I believe, on the contrary, that understanding the nature of consciousness crucially requires understanding how brain processes cause and realize consciousness.. ” (1999)

In a sense, then, if one says that biology matters, one is also saying that functions aren't everything (though not that functions are nothing). Indeed Churchland takes this position to its logical conclusion when she more or less argues that in order to build an artificial brain one would not only need to replicate its functions, but also everything (physical) about it.

Here again she has the backup of Searle. He writes:

Perhaps when we understand how brains do that, we can build conscious artefacts using some nonbiological materials that duplicate, and not merely simulate, the causal powers that brains have. But first we need to understand how brains do it.”

Of course we can say that we can have an artificial mind without having an artificial brain. Though isn't it precisely this position which many dispute (perhaps Churchland does too)?

In any case, to use Churchland's own words on this subject, she says that

it may be that if we had a complete cognitive neurobiology we would find that to build a computer with the same capacities as the human brain, we had to use as structural elements things that behaved very like neurons” (1986).

Churchland continues by saying that

the artificial units would have to have both action potentials and graded potentials, and a full repertoire of synaptic modifiability, dendritic growth, and so forth”.

It gets even less promising for functionalism when Churchland says that

for all we know now, to mimic nervous plasticity efficiently, we might have to mimic very closely even certain subcellular structures”.

Put that way, Churchland makes it sound as if an artificial mind (if not artificial intelligence) is still a pipe-dream.

Readers may also have noted that Churchland was only talking about the biology of neurons, not the biology of the brain as a whole. However, wouldn't the replication of the brain (as a whole) make this whole artificial-mind endeavour even more complex and difficult?

In any case, Churchland sums up this immense problem by saying that

we simply do not know at what level of organisation one can assume that the physical implementation can vary but the capacities will remain the same”.

That's an argument which says that it's wrong to accept the implementation-function “binary opposition” (to use a phrase from Derrida) in the first place. Though that's not to say - and Churchland doesn't say - that it's wrong to concentrate on functions or cognition generally. It's just wrong to completely ignore the “physical implementation”. Or, as Churchland says at the beginning of one paper, it's wrong to “ignore neuroscience” and focus entirely on function.

Churchland puts the icing on the cake herself by stressing function. Or, more correctly, she stresses the functional levels which are often ignored by functionalists.

Take the cell or neurone. Churchland writes that

even at the level of cellular research, one can view the cell as being the functional unit with a certain input-output profile, as having a specifiable dynamics, and as having a structural implementation in certain proteins and other subcellular structures” (1986).

Basically, what's being said here is that in many ways what happens at the macro level of the mind-brain (in terms of inputs and outputs) also has an analogue at the cellular level. In other words, functionalists are concentrating on the higher levels at the expense of the lower levels.

Another way of putting this is to say what Churchland herself says: that neuroscientists aren't ignoring functions at all. They are, instead, tackling biological functions, rather than abstract cognitive functions.

References

- 'Reductionism and Antireductionism in Functionalist Theories of Mind' (1986), in The Philosophy of Mind: Classical Problems/Contemporary Issues (1992/1997), edited by Brian Beakley and Peter Ludlow.
- 'Neural Representation and Neural Computation' (1989)
Edelman, Gerald, quoted in John Horgan's The End Of Science (1996)
Kim, Jaegwon, 'Multiple realization and the metaphysics of reduction' (1992)
- 'Mental Causation' (chapter 6) in his Philosophy of Mind (1996)
Searle, John, 'Consciousness' (1999)
Wilson, E.O., quoted in What Philosophers Think (2003), edited by Julian Baggini and Jeremy Stangroom.
- Consilience: The Unity of Knowledge (1998)


Monday, 27 July 2015

Paul Smolensky: Is Perception or Logical Inference Primary?



What is at the heart of intelligence and cognition?

According to Paul Smolensky, there are two main alternatives or rivals: perception and logical inference.

One can immediately ask if there can be such a simple categorisation, explanation and/or description of something as broad as intelligence or cognition. Of course at a prima facie (empiricist) level one can say that perception doesn’t seem to be cognitive at all. Perception may be a basis for cognition; though is it actually cognition itself?

Logical inference, on the other hand, is clearly cognitive in nature. Yet here again (at least on an empiricist conception) we use logical inferences when responding to our perceptions. Of course perception itself can also be seen as being (or it actually is) cognitively enriched.

Perception

Paul Smolensky (a Professor of Cognitive Science at the Johns Hopkins University and a Partner Researcher at Microsoft Research) deems perception to be “subsymbolic”. Thus if it’s subsymbolic, mustn’t it also be sub-logical or even sub-cognitive? That, of course, raises this question:

Why assume that all cognition (or at least all intelligence) must somehow be symbolic in nature?

That said, x’s being sub-symbolic isn’t the same as it being non-symbolic… Or perhaps it is.

In any case, that which is deemed (by Smolensky) to be subsymbolic is still about the “categorisation of other perceptual processes”. So here is can be seen that perception isn’t viewed as being (as it were) basic or fundamental. It isn’t been said here (as stated earlier) that perception is — in and of itself — a question of logical inferences or cognition. What we have, instead, is the “categorisation [of] perceptual processes”. That means that on this picture there’s categorisation which seems to be above about beyond the perceptions themselves.

Perception and Evolution

There are various things which work to the advantage of seeing things primarily in terms of perception rather than in terms of logical inference.

One way is that logical inference (or, more widely, reasoning) must have come after the “categorisation of perceptual processes” in our evolutionary history. Or as Smolensky puts it:

“An evolutionary argument says that the hard side of the cognitive paradox evolved later, on top of the soft side.”

That must mean that there were cognitive processes which predated the higher processes of logical inference (or reasoning) and indeed of language-use. Surely that must have been the case. Homo sapiens (or the species which grew into homo sapiens) surely couldn’t have been logical reasoners from the very beginning. Again, homo sapiens (or their forbears) couldn’t have started off as language-users or logical reasoners. Indeed all the evidence says that this wasn’t — and indeed couldn’t — have been the case.

Basically, both language and logical inference must have been built upon such things as the (to use Smolensky’s words) categorisation of perceptual processes (as well as upon much else). Thus language use and logical inference — obviously — didn’t occur ex nihilo.

Connectionism, Connectoplasm and Symbols

If this evolutionary account is correct, then it no surprise that

“it is much easier to see how the kind of soft systems that connectionist models represent could be implemented in the nervous system”.

After all, isn’t it the case that our nervous system today is basically as it was before we acquired languages and the skills of logical reasoning? So even though cognition and mentality have changed, our biological hardware hasn’t. Thus if our biological hardware predates symbolic processing, then perhaps our current models should do so too. Symbolisation and computation may be parts of cognition; though the biological nervous system which subserves all this was designed (in the evolutionary sense!) for other things.

Some people believe that connectionists reject mental symbols and everything that goes with them. And, by virtue of that, they also believe that connectionists reject computation — at least as the primary basis of cognition.

In Smolensky’s case, that isn’t entirely true.

Indeed Smolensky talks about “building symbols” out of “connectoplasm”. In his view, symbols arising from connectoplasm is a better idea than symbols arising from… well, he doesn’t really say: from the Language of Thought or something similarly symbol-based? (Symbols don’t arise from the Language of Thought — they constitute it.)

In any event, Smolensky writes:

“With any luck we will even have an explanation how the brain builds symbolic computation. But even if we do not get that directly, it will be the first theory of how to get symbols out of anything that remotely resembles the brain.”

It’s clear here that Smolensky believes that he’s creating a theory (or model) that’s biologically feasible; unlike many of the alternatives. Of course it will need to be said exactly how and why it’s biologically feasible.

As it is, we can firstly cite J.L. McClelland’s account of this issue here:

“One reason for the appeal of PDP [parallel distributed processing] models is their obvious ‘physiological’ flavor: They seem so much more closely tied to the physiology of the brain than are other kinds of informational-processing models. The brain consists of a large number of highly interconnected elements which apparently send very simply excitatory and inhibitory messages to each other and update their excitations on the basis of these simple messages. The properties of the units in many of the PDP models we will be exploring were inspired by basic properties of the neural hardware.”

We also need to know (in Smolensky’s words) “how the brain builds symbolic computation”. In fact we also need to know exactly what Smolensky means by the words “the brain builds symbolic computation”.

The point to stress here is that Smolensky does believe that the brain builds symbols. So, at the very least, symbols are part of Smolensky’s connectionism.

Despite all that, elsewhere in the same paper Smolensky does indeed play down the importance of symbols. Basically, Smolensky wants “formal accounts [of] continuous mathematics” (see here) rather than the “discrete mathematics [of much] traditional symbolic formalism”. In more detail, Smolensky writes:

“[M]y characterisation of the goal of connectionist modelling is to develop formal models of cognitive processes that are based on the mathematics of dynamical systems continuously evolving in time: complex systems of numerical variables governed by differential equations.”

There’s no mention above of symbols or even of quasi-symbols. In fact this account sounds — strange as it may seem - both mechanical and biological in nature. So why shouldn’t the biological also be seen as mechanical and dynamical? And if we’re talking of the mechanical and the dynamical, then it stands to reason that “numerical variables” and “differential equations” — rather than symbols — will be primary. Indeed it seems that in even simpler terms, all this is more a case of the measurement of dynamical systems rather than the symbols themselves (i.e., within a symbol-system — e.g., the mind/brain).

It may appear to the case that causation is also of prime importance in Smolensky’s scheme. That is, we have the numerical measurements of the interplay between the environment (in terms of input) and a dynamical system which results in certain internal states and then certain kinds of output.

Main Reference:

Smolensky, Paul, ‘The Constituent Structure of Connectionist Mental States: A Reply to Fodor and Pylyshyn’ (1988)

[I can be found on Twitter here.]

Jaegwon Kim's Case Against a Science of Pain

On epiphenomenalism? The Korean-American philosopher argued that pain isn’t a “scientific kind”. He didn’t also argue that people don’t feel pain.

Symbols:

N = a particular neural state
P = a particular pain
W = a particular wince

Causal Overdetermination?

The philosopher Jaegwon Kim (1934–2019) argued that a particular neural state (symbolised N) is what he called the “supervenience base” of my toothache.

I winced (W) because of my toothache (P).

What caused that wince?

Surely it must have been the pain that caused me to wince. Jaegwon Kim, on the other hand, believed that it’s a particular neural state that caused me to wince. More radically, as Kim himself put it, N is “causally sufficient for wincing”.

So was there a difference between the neural state N and the experience of the toothache?

If N and P are two different (as it were) things, then both N and P (the pain) might have caused me to wince. However, according to Kim, this would be a case of something being “causally overdetermined”.

Yet why does it automatically follow that if two things cause a third thing, that this third thing is causally overdetermined? That is, doesn’t it sometimes take two or more things to cause a third thing? In fact, can’t there can be very many causal conditions which are required to bring about a particular effect?

A simple answer to the passage above is this:

If x is causally necessary and sufficient to bring about y, then x is all that’s required to bring about y.

Of course overdetermination has been widely discussed in philosophy. (For example, in the ontology of objects and in the philosophy of science.) However, Kim doesn’t got into detail on this. The following is probably the reason why.

If P and N are one and the same thing, then to say that both P and N (as separate phenomena) cause W is a case of overdetermination because… well, they’re the same thing. However, that’s not actually causal overdetermination: it’s thinking that one thing is two things. Thus, in actual fact, there’s no genuine overdetermination at all here.

In any case, there’s an alternative to this possible overdetermination which involves a three-way journey from N to the wincing.

We can have a chain from N to P… and then to W. Yet Kim says that N and P are perfectly simultaneous. There’s no causal journey from N to P because they occur at one and the same time…

… But do they?

It’s indeed the case that human cognition can’t register the time-lapse between N and P; though that doesn’t mean that there is no time-lapse. The interval may be milliseconds or less. And even if only a millisecond, that would still have constituted a temporal and “causal gap” between N and P.

Kim completely rejects this causal gap. Indeed he doesn’t even discuss the possibility that it may exist. Instead, he argues that P “supervenes on” (or is “realised by”) a neural state: it’s “not caused by” N.

Thus, in Kim’s eyes, supervenience isn’t a relation of causation.

When argued argued that P supervenes on N, then that didn’t also mean that N causes P. It simply meant that P supervenes on N

But what exactly does that mean?

Can such supervenience occur without causation? But if it does, then how and why is that the case? And if this applies to the relation between N and P, then does it also apply to all mental states and their supervenience-bases?

For example, say I formed a mental image of Johnny Depp. That means that I can’t say that neural or (brain state) N caused my mental image of Depp. All I can say is that the mental image supervenes on a particular neural state…

Though, again, what exactly does that mean?

So what plays the main “causal role” when it comes to my wincing? Is it N or P?

What is the Causal Role of Pain?

If N doesn’t cause P (i.e., if P supervenes on N), then perhaps that question doesn’t make sense. Perhaps both N and P caused W. However, Kim has just argued that this is a case of overdetermination. And, if that’s the case, then wouldn’t that mean that Kim wanted to (somehow) get rid of pain (or get rid of this specific P, e.g., my toothache)?

Kim couldn’t get rid of N because there’d be no pain without a neural state. So could he get rid of the pain itself? Surely not. Would I have winced without a (mental) pain? Of course not… surely.

Kim, at a prima facie level, didn’t seem to want to get rid of P. Or at least he wrote that “if we trace the causal chain backward from the wincing, we are likely to reach N first, not the pain”. Indeed he continued by arguing that it’s

“incoherent to think that the pain somehow directly, without an intervening chain of physiological processes, acted on certain muscles, causing them to contract; that would be telekinesis, a strange form of action at a distance!”.

This seems to be a denial that something that’s purely mental can act on the physical. Or, at the least, it’s a argument that the mental can only act on the physical if the mental is itself physical. (Or, in this case, if the mental supervenes on the physical.) So Kim rejected what can be seen as the Cartesian or dualist position. Indeed Kim argued that something purely mental acting on the physical (in this case, on muscles) would be like “telekinesis” or “action at a distance”. The only way out of that would be to see the mental and physical as one — otherwise we would indeed have telekinesis or action at a distance.

Again, it must now be said that Kim didn’t reject either pain or the mental generally. Instead, he argued that

“if the pain is to have a causal role, it must somehow ride piggyback on the causal chain from N to the wincing”.

[We’d need to discover what exactly the words “pain riding piggyback on N” actually mean.]

As stated, Kim firmly rejected what he called the overdetermination that is “two independent causal paths”. That would be a path from N to the wincing and another path from P to the wincing”. The simple way out is to see N and P as one.

But how can a neural state and pain be as one?

This was the position adopted by the old-style identity theorists (or “type physicalists”) of the 1950s and 1960s. The main difference with Kim, it seems, is the introduction of the notion of supervenience. However, is the notion of supervenience satisfactory and/or acceptable?

In any case, one obvious conclusion to all this is to argue that P is epiphenomenal. And that’s what Kim did argue.

Is Pain Epiphenomenal?

Is there a difference between the following? -

(1) P supervenes on N.
(2) P is epiphenomenal.

In other words, if P is truly epiphenomenal, then it is (to use Kim’s words) “wrong to think of pain as a causal effect of N”? In fact earlier in the paper, Kim himself cited an analogical case. He referred to the shadows of a moving car. He wrote:

“The shadows are caused by the moving car but have no effect on the car’s motion. Nor are the shadows at different instants causally connected [].”

And then Kim compared the car’s shadows with someone’s toothache. He continued:

“Similarly, you may think that the pain in your tooth has caused your desire to take aspirin, but that, according to epiphenomenalism, would be a mistake: Your toothache and your desire for aspirin are both caused by brain events, which themselves may be causally connected, but the two mental events are not related as cause to effect any more than two successive car shadows.”

So if all that’s the case, then what purpose does the pain actually serve? After all, according to Kim, it’s

[b]eing real and having causal powers go hand in hand; to deprive the mental of causal potency is in effect to deprive it of its reality”.

[The problems with the view above is that it would make numbers, past events, propositions, etc. unreal too.]

Indeed without the pain working as a genuine cause, aren’t we talking here about a simple mechanical cause and effect without the interaction of any kind of mentality? If the actual tooth… ache, in this instance, has no causal role, then what role does it play?

Reductionism or Eliminativism?

Jaegwon Kim’s solution to all this seems to be reductionism. Or at least he puts the reductionist position when he says that the “reductionist identifies pain with neural state N”.

In another paper, Kim did argue that pain as a “scientific kind [] must go” and that reduction is the answer.

Pain — at least as a scientific kind — must go primarily because (in Kim’s case at least) of the problems associated with the multiple realizability of mental kinds in many and various physical substrates. This is what Kim himself wrote on that subject:

[T]he frank acknowledgement that MR [multiple realizability] leads to the conclusion that pain as a property or kind must go. Local reduction after all is reduction, and to be reduced is to be eliminated as an independent entity.”

As already stated, it’s clear that Kim accepted that pain and mental states (or qualities) exist: it’s just that he didn’t also deem them to be scientific kinds or properties.

However, when putting his case, Kim identified P with N — but with the addition of supervenience. (Unless, of course, such a reduction can exist side-by-side with supervenience.)

In any case, Kim happily finished off by arguing that

“reductionism has been rejected by the majority of philosophers of mind for what they take to be compelling reasons”.

References

Kim, Jaegwon, ‘Multiple realization and the metaphysics of reduction’ (1992)


[I can be found on Twitter here.]